What is the normal heart rate range for adults?
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The normal heart rate for adults is between 60 - 100 bpm.
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What is the normal heart rate range for adults?
The normal heart rate for adults is between 60 - 100 bpm.
How is maximal heart rate calculated?
Maximal heart rate is calculated using the formula: 220 - age.
What is the normal blood pressure reading for adults?
The normal blood pressure for adults is 120/80 mmHg.
What is pulse pressure and what is its normal value?
Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure, normally around 40 mmHg.
How is mean arterial pressure (MAP) calculated?
MAP can be calculated using the formulas:
What is the normal value of mean arterial pressure (MAP) in the periphery?
The normal value of MAP in the periphery is 93 mmHg.
How is stroke volume calculated?
Stroke volume (SV) is calculated as: SV = End Diastolic Volume (EDV) - End Systolic Volume (ESV).
What are the normal values for end diastolic volume (EDV) and end systolic volume (ESV)?
Normal values are approximately:
What is the normal stroke volume?
The normal stroke volume is 70-80 mL per heartbeat.
What is cardiac output and its normal value?
Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped from the ventricle in one minute, with a normal value of 5-6 L/min.
What is the formula for calculating cardiac output (CO)?
CO = HR × SV or CO = MAP/TPR
What is the definition of ejection fraction?
Ejection fraction is the percentage of the ventricular volume that is ejected, representing the percentage of blood ejected from the ventricles. The normal value is 50-70%.
How do you calculate ejection fraction?
Ejection fraction = (SV/EDV) × 100%
Is the cardiac output larger in the right or the left ventricle?
They are equal.
How do you calculate mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
MAP = (systolic pressure + 2 × diastolic pressure) / 3
What is the calculated mean arterial pressure (MAP) if the blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg?
MAP = 90 mmHg
What is the calculated cardiac output (CO) if the heart rate (HR) is 60 bpm and stroke volume (SV) is 100 mL?
CO = 60 × 100 = 6000 mL = 6L
How do you calculate total peripheral resistance (TPR)?
TPR = MAP/CO
What is the calculated total peripheral resistance (TPR) if MAP is 90 mmHg and CO is 6L?
TPR = 15
What is the calculated ejection fraction if stroke volume (SV) is 100 mL and end-diastolic volume (EDV) is 150 mL?
Ejection fraction = (100/150) × 100% = 66.6%
How do you calculate pulse pressure if the blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg?
Pulse pressure = systolic pressure - diastolic pressure = 110 - 80 = 30 mmHg.
What is the formula for calculating the duration of the cardiac cycle?
Cardiac cycle = 60/HR
What is the duration of one cardiac cycle at a heart rate of 75 bpm?
0.8 seconds
What is the duration of systole in a cardiac cycle lasting 0.8 seconds?
270 ms
What is the duration of diastole in a cardiac cycle lasting 0.8 seconds?
530 ms
If the total peripheral resistance (TRP) increases and cardiac output is constant, what happens to the mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
The MAP should increase.
If stroke volume is constant but heart rate increases, what happens to cardiac output?
Cardiac output increases.
What triggers the Goltz reflex and what is its effect on heart rate?
The Goltz reflex is triggered by increased abdominal pressure, such as from hitting the cardia or abdominal wall. This reflex activates the vagus nerve, leading to a decrease in heart rate (HR↓).
Describe the Occulo-cardiac reflex and its relationship to heart rate.
The Occulo-cardiac reflex occurs when there is increased pressure against the eyeballs, similar to the Cushing reflex. This pressure raises intracranial pressure, signaling through the ophthalmic nerve to the heart, which results in a decrease in heart rate (HR↓) due to vagus nerve activation.
What are the differences in potassium and glucose concentrations between cerebellar spinal fluid and plasma?
In the cerebellar spinal fluid, the concentrations of potassium and glucose are lower than those in plasma, indicating a difference in composition that may have physiological implications.
How does the heart rate change when the sciatic nerve is tortured and what reflex is this?
The heart rate increases due to the Loven reflex.
How long is 1 mm in the ECG paper in milliseconds?
1 mm in the ECG paper is approximately 40 ms.
What are the components of a normal ECG?
A normal ECG is composed of a P wave, a QRS complex, and a T wave.
What causes the P wave in an ECG?
The P wave is caused by electrical potentials generated when the atria depolarize before they contract.
What does the QRS complex represent in an ECG?
The QRS complex represents the electrical potentials generated when the ventricles depolarize before they contract, with atrial repolarization hidden in this complex.
What does the T wave in an ECG represent and what is its duration range?
The T wave represents ventricular repolarization and has a duration of less than 200 ms.
What is the duration of the P-R interval in an ECG?
The P-R interval duration is 120-200 ms.
What does the U wave in an ECG indicate?
The U wave indicates the repolarization of the papillary muscle.
What is the normal duration range for the QRS complex in an ECG?
The QRS complex duration is 40-100 ms.
How is heart rate calculated from the R-R interval?
Heart rate is calculated using the formula:
Heart Rate (bpm) = 60 / R-R interval (in seconds). For an R-R interval of 1 second, the heart rate is 60 bpm.
What is the duration of the QT interval in an ECG?
The QT interval duration is 0.37-0.42 seconds (or 370-420 ms).
Is the normal QRS complex as long as 0.8 s?
False. The correct duration is 0.08 s.
Can we see the atrial repolarization on the ECG?
True. It is hidden in the QRS complex.
What is the diagnosis if the RR interval is 800 ms, the P wave is 80 ms, the QRS is 80 ms, and the PR interval is 280 ms?
1st degree AV-block, as the PR interval is too long (should be between 120-200 ms).
What is the heart rate if the R-R interval is 800 ms?
75 bpm, calculated as ( \frac{60}{0.8} ).
How many electrodes are placed on the patient when measuring 12 leads?
False. We place 10 electrodes on the patient to measure 12 leads.
How many bipolar and unipolar leads do we have?
False. We have 3 bipolar leads and 9 unipolar leads.
In which leads can you see a negative QRS complex?
In leads V1, V2, and aVR.
How can you identify a ventricular extrasystole on the ECG?
By observing an abnormal QRS followed by a compensational pause.
What is Einthoven's triangle used for in cardiology?
Einthoven's triangle is used to determine the electrical axis of the heart by measuring the electrical potential differences between the limbs.
What does Einthoven's Law state regarding the ECG recordings?
Einthoven's Law states that the sum of the potentials recorded in leads I and III will equal the potential in lead II, expressed as II = I + III.
How are the unipolar limb leads configured in Goldberger's augmented leads?
In Goldberger's augmented leads, two limbs are connected to the negative terminal of the electrocardiograph, while the third limb is connected to the positive terminal, resulting in leads aVR, aVL, and aVF.
If end-diastolic volume (EDV) is constant but end-systolic volume (ESV) increases, what happens to the ejection fraction?
The ejection fraction decreases because the stroke volume decreases.
What is the mean arterial pressure (MAP) in the pulmonary artery?
14 mmHg
What is the pulse pressure in the pulmonary artery?
15 mmHg
What are the normal values for stroke volume (SV)?
70-80 mL
What is the normal range for ejection fraction?
50-70%
What is the normal mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
93 mmHg
What occurs during the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle?
What is the significance of the closure of the AV-valves during isovolumetric contraction?
The closure of the AV-valves is the main component of the first heart sound. Both AV-valves close simultaneously, resulting in no split between them.
What happens during the rapid ejection phase of the cardiac cycle?
What characterizes the slow ejection phase of the cardiac cycle?
During the isovolumetric contraction phase, which valves are open and which are closed?
Both the semilunar valves and AV-valves are closed during isovolumetric contraction.
What occurs during the protodiastole phase of ventricular diastole?
The protodiastole phase is a short period of 40 ms where nothing significant happens in the heart.
What are the key characteristics of isovolumetric relaxation in the cardiac cycle?
During isovolumetric relaxation, ventricular pressure decreases, ventricular volume remains unchanged, and both AV and semilunar valves are closed. The closure of the semilunar valves marks the second heart sound.
What happens during the fast filling phase of ventricular diastole?
In the fast filling phase, blood moves from the atriums to the ventricles, accounting for 70-80% of cardiac filling. Ventricular pressure slightly decreases then increases, ventricular volume increases, semilunar valves are closed, and AV-valves are open. The third heart sound may be heard due to vibrations of the ventricular wall.
What occurs during the slow filling phase of ventricular diastole?
The slow filling phase is similar to the fast filling phase, where the ventricles continue to fill with blood, but at a slower rate. Ventricular pressure slightly increases, ventricular volume increases, semilunar valves are closed, and AV-valves are open.
What is the role of atrial systole in the cardiac cycle?
During atrial systole, the ventricles continue to fill with blood (20% of total filling). Ventricular pressure slightly increases, ventricular volume increases, semilunar valves are closed, and AV-valves are open. The ventricular volume does not change significantly during this phase.
What phase of the cardiac cycle occurs when all the valves are closed, ventricular volume doesn't change, and ventricular pressure decreases?
Isovolumetric relaxation.
Which heart sound is the longest, the first or the second?
The first heart sound.
What phase of the cardiac cycle is characterized by an increase in ventricular volume, closed semilunar valves, open AV valves, and the presence of the third heart sound?
Fast filling phase.
What phase of the cardiac cycle occurs when ventricular volume doesn't change, ventricular pressure increases, and all the valves are closed?
Isovolumetric contraction.
In which phases of the cardiac cycle are the semilunar valves closed?
All diastolic phases (Protodiastole, Isovolumetric relaxation, fast filling phase, slow filling phase, atrial systole) and isovolumetric contraction.
In which phase of the cardiac cycle are the semilunar valves open?
Rapid/fast ejection phase and slow ejection phase.
In which phases of the cardiac cycle are the AV valves open?
Fast filling phase, slow filling phase, and atrial systole.
How can we detect the conditions of the heart valves in the lab?
With a stethoscope or PCG (Phonocardiography).
What is the main component of the first heart sound?
Closure of AV valves.
What is the main component of the second heart sound?
Closure of semilunar valves.
What is the main component of the third heart sound?
Rapid filling phase, vibration of the ventricular wall.
What is the main component of the fourth heart sound?
Pathological (atrial systole).
What are the three major types of cardiac muscle in the heart?
The three major types of cardiac muscle are atrial muscle, ventricular muscle, and specialized excitatory and conductive muscle.
How do cardiac muscle fibers communicate with each other?
Cardiac muscle fibers communicate through gap junctions, which allow the action potential to spread to adjacent cells, enabling the atria and ventricles to function as two functional syncytia despite being electrically isolated.
What is the structural and functional unit of cardiac muscle?
The structural and functional unit of cardiac muscle is the sarcomere, which contains Z-lines, thin filaments (actin, tropomyosin, troponin), and thick filaments (myosin).
What happens to the I-band and H-band during cardiac muscle contraction?
During contraction, the I-band and H-band decrease in size, while the M-lines and Z-lines get closer together.
What is the difference between isometric and isotonic contraction in cardiac muscle?
In isometric (isovolumetric) contraction, the strain (pressure) increases without a change in length, while in isotonic contraction, the muscle shortens and work can be measured, such as when the ventricles contract and the semilunar valves open.
What is ectopic impulse generation in the heart?
Ectopic impulse generation occurs when the electrical impulse develops outside the SA node, which is the normal pacemaker of the heart. This can happen when the SA node ceases to generate impulses, leading to pacemaker activity from another site, such as the AV node.
What is an extrasystole?
An extrasystole is a premature cardiac contraction that occurs independently of the normal rhythm of the heart. It can be characterized by a coupling time and may include a complete or incomplete compensatory pause.
What are the main components of the heart's conduction system?
The main components of the heart's conduction system are the SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches (Tawara bundles), and Purkinje fibres.
What is the primary function of the SA node in the heart?
The SA node is the main generator of the heart, activating the atrial muscles and generating 60-100 action potentials per minute, which corresponds to the heart rate.
What happens if the SA node fails to function properly?
If the SA node fails, the AV node can take over with a heart rate of 40-60 bpm. If the AV node also fails, the His-bundle can take over with a rate of 12-25 bpm, which is insufficient for human life.
What is the conduction velocity of the impulse through the AV node?
The conduction velocity through the AV node is between 0.02-0.05 m/s.
Describe the sequence of electrical conduction in the heart starting from the SA node.
SA node generates impulse; atrial excitation begins.
Impulse is delayed at the AV node.
Impulse passes to the heart apex; ventricular excitation begins.
Ventricular excitation is complete.
What is the conduction velocity of the Purkinje fibres?
The conduction velocity of the Purkinje fibres is 4 m/s.
What is the sequence of heart activation?
SA-node -> atrium -> AV-node -> His bundle -> Tawara bundles/right and left bundle branches -> Purkinje fibres -> Ventricular muscle.
List the parts of the heart activation sequence from fastest to slowest conduction velocity.
List the parts of the heart activation sequence from slowest to fastest conduction velocity.
Which part of the conduction system is the fastest?
Purkinje fibres.
What is the function of the AV-delay?
Gives time for ventricular filling.
What happens when the 1st and 2nd Stannius ligatures are placed on the fish heart?
1st Stannius ligature is placed between the sinus venosus and the atrium, causing the atria and ventricles to stop contracting temporarily, then contract at a lower rate due to atrial pacemaker activity. The 2nd Stannius ligature is placed between the atrium and ventricle, stopping the ventricles while the atria continue contracting, leading to a lower frequency of ventricular contractions than atrial contractions.
What is the order of rhythmic activity generation in the heart according to Stannius ligatures?
The order is: 1. Sinus venosus (fastest) 2. Atria 3. Ventricles
What happens to the apical piece of the fish heart when placed in Ringer's solution after the 3rd Stannius ligature?
The apical piece does not contract on its own due to lack of impulse generation capability, but it contracts when mechanically stimulated with a pinprick.
How does the excitability, impulse conductibility, and contractility change after placing the Stannius ligatures?
They remain unaffected after placing the Stannius ligatures.
How was the Bowditch 'All or nothing' law demonstrated in the lab?
By stimulating the ventricle after the first Stannius ligature with electrical impulses, it was shown that the heart responds to every suprathreshold stimulus with the same maximal contraction, regardless of stimulus intensity.
Do pacemaker cells exist in the apex of the ventricles?
No, there are no pacemaker cells in the apex of the ventricles.
Is the stimulus intensity proportional to the contraction force in the heart?
False, according to the Bowditch 'all or nothing' law, once the threshold is reached, the contraction force remains the same regardless of stimulus intensity.
Why can't heart muscle be tetanized?
Heart muscle cannot be tetanized because the duration of an action potential is almost equal to the duration of the mechanical response (contraction).
In what phase of the cardiac cycle can an extra stimulus elicit an extrasystole?
Ventricular diastole.
What is coupling time?
Coupling time is the interval from R-wave of last sinus beat to R-wave of an extrasystole.
What is compensatory pause?
Compensatory pause is an impulse generation after an extrasystole.
What is the significance of nonselective cation channels in nodal tissue action potentials?
Nonselective cation channels, also known as the funny current, primarily allow Na+ inflow which contributes to the slow diastolic depolarization in nodal tissue action potentials.
What role do T-type calcium channels play in the action potential of nodal tissue?
T-type calcium channels facilitate Ca2+ inflow, which is crucial for both the slow diastolic depolarization and the early phase of the action potential in nodal tissue.
How do L-type calcium channels contribute to the action potential in nodal tissue?
L-type calcium channels allow Ca2+ inflow, which further increases the membrane potential during the action potential, contributing to its peak phase.
What is the function of voltage-gated potassium channels during the action potential in nodal tissue?
Voltage-gated potassium channels are responsible for K+ outflow, which leads to repolarization of the membrane potential after the action potential peaks.
Describe the membrane potential changes during an action potential in nodal tissue.
The action potential starts from a resting membrane potential of around -65 mV, rises slowly due to T-type Ca2+ channels, peaks with L-type Ca2+ channels, and then repolarizes due to K+ channels opening.
What are the key differences between the action potentials of cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?
The action potential in cardiac muscle is longer and includes a plateau phase due to the involvement of L-type slow calcium channels in addition to fast sodium channels. In contrast, the action potential in skeletal muscle is primarily caused by fast sodium channels that open briefly, resulting in a shorter action potential.
What are the phases of the action potential in cardiac muscle?
Depolarization: Fast voltage gated sodium (Na+) channels open, causing sodium inflow and evoking the action potential.
Early Repolarization: Early voltage gated potassium (K+) channels open, potassium outflows, and fast sodium channels close.
Chloride Inflow: Voltage gated chloride (Cl-) channels open, allowing chloride inflow, contributing to repolarization.
Plateau Phase: L-type calcium (Ca2+) channels open, leading to calcium inflow.
Late Repolarization: Late voltage gated potassium (K+) channels open, potassium outflows, completing the repolarization process.
Why is there a plateau in the membrane potential during the 4th phase despite Ca2+ inflow?
The plateau occurs because there is a simultaneous potassium outflow that balances the membrane potential.
What type of channels are found in both the nodal tissue and the atrial and ventricular muscle?
L-type Ca2+ channels and voltage-gated potassium (K+) channels are found in both.
What type of channels are found only in the atrial and ventricular muscle but not in the nodal tissue?
Fast voltage-gated sodium channels are found only in the atrial and ventricular muscle.
What type of channels are found only in the nodal tissue but not in the atrial and ventricular muscle?
Non-selective cation channels and T-type Ca2+ channels are found only in the nodal tissue.
Where is the maximal diastolic membrane potential most negative, in the nodal tissue or in the ventricular muscle?
The maximal diastolic membrane potential is most negative in the ventricular muscle.
How long is the action potential in the nodal tissue and in the ventricular muscle?
What does ECG stand for and what information does it provide?
ECG stands for electrocardiogram and provides information about the heart's electrical activity, rate, and rhythm.
How many leads and electrodes are used in a standard clinical ECG?
In a standard clinical ECG, 12 leads are recorded using 10 electrodes placed on the patient.
What is the standard speed of the ECG paper?
The standard speed of the ECG paper is 25 mm/s.
What is the significance of the aVR lead in unipolar limb leads?
The aVR lead is significant because it records the electrical activity of the heart from the right arm and is inverted compared to standard limb leads, providing a different perspective on the heart's electrical activity.
In which lead can we see that all the waves are negative?
aVR
What are the locations of the unipolar chest leads V1 to V6?
| Lead | Location |
|---|---|
| V1 | 4th intercostal space parasternal, right side |
| V2 | 4th intercostal space parasternal, left side |
| V3 | Between lead V2 and V4 |
| V4 | 5th intercostal space in midclavicular line, left side |
| V5 | 5th intercostal line anteroaxillary line, left side |
| V6 | 5th intercostal space midaxillary line, left side |
If the action potential is travelling away from the V1 and V2 electrodes, what will the QRS complex be?
Negative QRS complex.
What is the normal electrical axis range of the heart?
The normal electrical axis of the heart is -30 to 100 degrees.
What type of electrical axis is indicated if the QRS is both positive in lead I and lead II?
Normal electrical axis.
What type of electrical axis is indicated if the QRS is negative in lead I and positive in lead II?
Right deviation.
What type of electrical axis is indicated if the QRS is positive in lead I and negative in lead II?
Left deviation.
What type of electrical axis is indicated if the QRS is both negative in lead I and lead II?
Extreme right deviation.
Is the statement 'In lead II the normal average of QRS is 10 mV' true or false?
False, it's too high. 10mV = 100mm.
Where is the P wave negative in an ECG?
aVR
Where is the T wave negative in an ECG?
aVR
Where is the QRS negative in an ECG?
aVR, V1 and V2.
After placing the electrodes on the patient, which hand is the negative?
The right hand.
If the left hand is attached to the negative, and the right to the positive, what is vector I?
Vector I will be negative.
If lead I, II, and III are positive, but lead II is the most positive, what is the electrical axis of the heart?
Normal electrical axis.
What is ventricular extrasystole and what are its characteristics?
Ventricular extrasystole is characterized by an abnormal QRS complex that is too wide, with no P wave preceding it. It is followed by a compensational pause due to the absolute refractory period, which prevents the next heartbeat from occurring immediately. This condition can be caused by low levels of magnesium.
What distinguishes supraventricular extrasystole from ventricular extrasystole?
Supraventricular extrasystole originates from the atrium, resulting in a normal QRS complex. Unlike ventricular extrasystole, there may not be a compensational pause following the extrasystole.
What defines a 1st degree AV-block in an ECG?
A 1st degree AV-block is defined by a P-R interval that is longer than 200 ms.
How does a 2nd degree AV-block differ from a 3rd degree AV-block?
In a 2nd degree AV-block, some action potentials are stopped by the AV node, while in a 3rd degree AV-block, all action potentials are stopped by the AV node, leading to a complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular activity.
What is phonocardiography (PCG) and its significance?
Phonocardiography (PCG) is a technique that graphically represents and visualizes heart sounds using a special microphone placed over the heart. It is significant for the detection and monitoring of valve diseases and is used in conjunction with ECG.
Where are the auscultation points for heart sounds located?
The auscultation points for heart sounds are as follows:
| Valve | Location |
|---|---|
| Bicuspid (Mitral) Valve | 5th intercostal space, left side midclavicular line (9cm from midline) |
| Tricuspid Valve | 4th intercostal space, right side parasternal |
| Aortic Valve | 2nd intercostal space, right side parasternal |
| Pulmonary Valve | 2nd intercostal space, left side parasternal |
What causes the first heart sound ('lub') and the second heart sound ('dub')?
The first heart sound ('lub') is due to the closure of the atrioventricular valves, while the second heart sound ('dub') is due to the closure of the semilunar valves.
What is the significance of the third heart sound and when is it best heard?
The third heart sound is caused by extremely fast ventricular filling, leading to a vibration in the ventricular wall. It is best heard over the cardiac apex and can be prominent in young people who exercise regularly.
What are the three basic types of percussion sounds and where are they typically heard?
The three basic percussion sounds are:
How can percussion be used to estimate heart size?
Percussion can provide an estimate of a patient's heart size by assessing the magnitude of cardiac dullness, which can be increased in cases of cardiomegaly or the accumulation of pericardial fluid.
What are the normal borders of the lungs in relation to the intercostal spaces?
The normal borders of the lungs are:
What is the role of the vagus nerve in heart innervation?
The vagus nerve (X) provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart, with the right vagus innervating the SA node and atrial muscle, and the left vagus innervating the AV node and atrial muscle.
What neurotransmitter is associated with the vagus nerve in the heart?
The neurotransmitter associated with the vagus nerve in the heart is acetylcholine.
What effect do inhibitors of acetylcholine esterase have on heart rate?
Inhibitors of acetylcholine esterase, such as eserine, physostigmine, and neostigmine, decrease the heart rate.
How does a low dose of epinephrine affect blood pressure?
A very low dose of epinephrine decreases blood pressure by binding to β-2 receptors, causing vasodilation and a decrease in total peripheral resistance (TPR).
What is the effect of an alpha-receptor blocker on heart rate?
An alpha-receptor blocker does not change the heart rate.
What is the function of choline acetyl transferase in the heart?
Choline acetyl transferase catalyzes the synthesis of acetylcholine in the heart muscle.
What is the role of acetylcholine esterase in the heart?
Acetylcholine esterase catalyzes the degradation of acetylcholine in the heart.
What is the effect of parasympathetic innervation on heart rate?
The parasympathetic innervation has a negative chronotropic effect, leading to a decrease in heart rate (HR).
What happens to heart rate when the vagus nerve is stimulated electrically?
The heart rate will decrease when the vagus nerve is stimulated electrically.
What is the effect of atropine on heart rate?
Atropine increases the heart rate by inhibiting muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, blocking the parasympathetic effect on the heart.
What is the effect of vagotomy on heart rate?
Cutting the vagus nerve (vagotomy) will increase the heart rate.
What is the effect of eserine on heart rate?
Eserine decreases the heart rate by inhibiting the degradation of acetylcholine (ACh).
How does stimulation of the right vagus nerve affect the ECG?
Stimulation of the right vagus nerve decreases the heart rate, resulting in a longer R-R interval on the ECG.
How does stimulation of the left vagus nerve affect the ECG?
Stimulation of the left vagus nerve slows down the AV node, increasing the atrioventricular conduction time and resulting in a longer P-R interval, with a decrease in heart rate.
What is the effect of warming up the SA node on heart rate?
Warming up the SA node increases the heart rate by generating more action potentials.
What is the effect of intravenous acetylcholine on heart rate?
Intravenous acetylcholine will decrease the heart rate due to its parasympathetic effects.
What is the effect of sympathetic innervation on heart rate?
The sympathetic innervation causes an increase in heart rate due to the release of norepinephrine, which acts on β-1 receptors in the heart.
What happens to heart rate when sympathetic fibers are stimulated?
When sympathetic fibers are stimulated, the heart rate increases.
What is the effect of cutting sympathetic fibers on heart rate?
Cutting sympathetic fibers results in a decrease in heart rate.
How do β-blockers affect heart rate?
β-blockers cause a decrease in heart rate by blocking the action of norepinephrine on β-1 receptors.
What is the effect of administering a β-blocker antagonist on heart rate?
Administering a β-blocker antagonist results in an increase in heart rate.
What happens to heart rate when both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers are cut?
The heart rate will increase because the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system, which decreases heart rate by 30-40 bpm, is stronger than that of the sympathetic nervous system, which increases heart rate by 10 bpm.
What is the effect of Ringer's solution with 5% CaCl2 on the heart?
It increases contraction force and heart rate, but the heart stops in systole.
What is the effect of Ringer's solution with 5% KCl on the heart?
It decreases contraction force and heart rate, and the heart stops in diastole.
What is the consequence of mild hyperkalaemia on the heart?
Mild hyperkalaemia can cause ventricular fibrillation, while more severe hyperkalaemia can lead to cardiac arrest in diastole.
What effect does epinephrine have when added to Ringer's solution?
Epinephrine increases both contraction force and heart rate.
What is the role of propranolol when administered after epinephrine?
Propranolol prevents the effects of epinephrine, reducing contraction force and heart rate.
What effect does acetylcholine have on the heart when added to Ringer's solution?
Acetylcholine increases contraction force and heart rate.
What is the effect of atropine when administered after acetylcholine?
Atropine prevents the effects of acetylcholine, leading to an increase in contraction force.
What are the roles of baroreceptors in regulating blood pressure?
Baroreceptors detect changes in blood pressure through transmural pressure in the arteries, particularly in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. They send signals to the brain via the glossopharyngeal nerve (from the carotid sinus) and the vagus nerve (from the aortic arch) to regulate blood pressure through sympathetic or parasympathetic responses.
What happens when a ligature is placed on the common carotid artery?
When a ligature is placed on the common carotid artery, the pressure in the carotid sinus decreases. This lower transmural pressure is detected by baroreceptors, which signal the brain to activate the sympathetic nervous system, resulting in increased blood pressure, heart rate, cardiac output, stroke volume, and total peripheral resistance (TPR). This response is known as the pressor reflex.
What is the effect of ligating the external carotid artery on blood pressure?
Ligation of the external carotid artery increases the transmural pressure in the carotid sinus, which is detected by baroreceptors. This leads to the activation of the vagus nerve, resulting in decreased blood pressure, heart rate, and cardiac output. This response is referred to as the depressor reflex.
How is baroreceptor activity related to blood pressure in the carotid sinus?
Baroreceptor activity is directly proportional to blood pressure. Therefore, when blood pressure is low, the activity of these receptors is also low.
Where are peripheral chemoreceptors located?
Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the aortic body and carotid body.
Can chemoreceptors be activated in cases of very severe hypercapnia?
Yes, chemoreceptors can be activated in cases of very severe hypercapnia, although their primary stimulus is hypoxia.
What neurotransmitters are associated with peripheral chemoreceptors?
The neurotransmitters of the peripheral chemoreceptors are dopamine and ATP.
What happens to blood pressure if the common carotid artery is constricted?
If the common carotid artery is constricted, blood pressure will increase due to low pressure in the carotid body, which activates the sympathetic nervous system.
How does baroreceptor hypersensitivity affect heart rate?
In cases of baroreceptor hypersensitivity, the heart rate decreases.
What are the effects of atropine on heart rate and blood pressure?
Atropine causes an increase in heart rate (HR ↑) and can lead to a decrease in blood pressure (BP ↓).
What is the effect of a β-receptor agonist on heart rate?
A β-receptor agonist causes an increase in heart rate (HR ↑).
What is the effect of a β-receptor antagonist on heart rate?
A β-receptor antagonist causes a decrease in heart rate (HR ↓).
What is the effect of acetylcholine on heart rate and blood pressure?
Acetylcholine causes a decrease in heart rate (HR ↓) and can lead to a decrease in blood pressure (BP ↓).
What is the stimulus and response of the pressor reflex?
The stimulus of the pressor reflex is low blood pressure. The response includes increased blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration rate.
What triggers the depressor reflex and what is its physiological response?
The depressor reflex is triggered by increased blood pressure. Its physiological response includes decreased blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing rate.
What role do peripheral chemoreceptors play in the chemoreflex?
Peripheral chemoreceptors located in the carotid body and aortic body sense low oxygen levels, activating the sympathetic nervous system, which leads to increased heart rate and blood pressure.
Describe the Bainbridge reflex and its effects on heart rate and blood pressure.
The Bainbridge reflex occurs when there is an increase in venous return. It is detected by low pressure baroreceptors in the atrium, leading to an increase in heart rate and blood pressure as the brain activates sympathetic fibers.
How does the heart rate change when moving from a standing position to a laying position and why?
The heart rate increases when you lay down because the venous return increases. Blood from the lower extremities does not have to flow against gravity, as they are at the same level as the heart, prompting an increase in heart rate.
What happens to the heart rate when standing up quickly after laying down?
The heart rate decreases when standing up quickly after laying down.
What is the Bezold Yarish reflex and its significance during exercise?
The Bezold Yarish reflex involves coronary dilation during diastole to compensate for the increased heart rate during exercise. This reflex allows more blood to flow to the heart muscle, counteracting the reduced blood flow due to shortened diastole, primarily through the activation of B-2 adrenergic receptors by epinephrine and norepinephrine.
What occurs in the heart during ischemia according to the Bezold Yarish reflex?
During ischemia, receptors on the wall of the left ventricle detect overload and activate the afferent vagus nerve, which informs the brain. This leads to activation of the efferent vagus nerve, resulting in a decrease in heart rate and an increase in diastole duration, improving coronary circulation and reducing heart workload.
What is the Loven reflex and its effects on heart rate and blood pressure?
The Loven reflex is evoked by pain, activating the sympathetic nervous system, which results in an increase in heart rate, cardiac output, total peripheral resistance (TPR), and blood pressure.
What is the Cushing reflex and its implications on heart rate and blood pressure?
The Cushing reflex occurs when intracranial pressure is high, activating the autonomic nervous system. It results in a decrease in heart rate (HR↓) due to vagus nerve activation, while the sympathetic system constricts vessels, leading to an increase in blood pressure (BP↑). This reflex is significant in cases of brain tumors, hemorrhage, or swelling, as it can compress the medulla oblongata, which is critical for respiratory and cardiovascular function.
Is the brain involved in the pressor reflex?
No, the brain is not involved in the pressor reflex.
Is the brain involved in the depressor reflex?
No, the brain is not involved in the depressor reflex.
How does the heart rate change in the case of the Bezold Yarish reflex?
The heart rate decreases in the case of the Bezold Yarish reflex.
How does the heart rate change in the case of the Cushing reflex?
The heart rate decreases in the case of the Cushing reflex.
How does the heart rate change in the case of the brain bridge reflex?
The heart rate increases in the case of the brain bridge reflex.
How does the heart rate change in the case of the pressor reflex?
The heart rate increases in the case of the pressor reflex.
How does the heart rate change in the case of the Loven reflex?
The heart rate increases in the case of the Loven reflex.
What conditions can lead to high intracranial pressure associated with the Cushing reflex?
High intracranial pressure can occur due to a brain tumour, brain haemorrhage, or swelling.
What causes the Goltz reflex and how does the heart rate change?
The Goltz reflex is caused by a hit in the abdominal wall, leading to a decrease in heart rate.
How does the heart rate change in the Occulo-cardiac reflex?
The heart rate decreases in the Occulo-cardiac reflex.
What is the mechanism of autoregulation in organs like the heart and brain?
The mechanism of autoregulation is the Bayliss effect. When blood pressure is high, transmural pressure increases, opening mechanosensitive Ca2+ channels, leading to Ca2+ inflow and smooth muscle contraction (vasoconstriction). Conversely, when blood pressure is low, there is no Ca2+ inflow, resulting in vasodilation.
What is the range of mean arterial pressure (MAP) for effective autoregulation?
Autoregulation is effective when the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is between 60 and 160 mmHg.
How does blood flow to the brain change during different activities like sleep, training, or praying?
The brain receives the same amount of blood during sleep, training, or praying. However, certain parts of the brain may be used more during these activities, leading to increased blood flow to those specific areas.
What are the blood flow rates to the heart, brain, and kidneys at rest?
At rest, the blood flow rates are as follows:
| Organ | Blood Flow Rate (ml/min) | Percentage of Cardiac Output (%) |
|---|---|---|
| Heart | 300 | 5 |
| Brain | 900 | 15 |
| Kidneys | 1350 | 20-25 |
What is the effect of hypercapnia and hypocapnia on brain blood vessels?
Hypercapnia acts as a vasodilator in the brain, while hypocapnia acts as a vasoconstrictor.
What causes fainting during hyperventilation?
Fainting during hyperventilation is caused by a decrease in the partial pressure of CO2, leading to hypocapnia, which results in vasoconstriction in large parts of the brain.
What is the role of hypoxia in peripheral and pulmonary circulation?
Hypoxia acts as a vasodilator in the periphery and a vasoconstrictor in the pulmonary circulation.
What is heterometric regulation of cardiac output according to the Starling law?
Heterometric regulation refers to the heart's ability to increase its force of contraction and stroke volume in response to an increase in venous return and hence preload.
What is homeometric regulation of cardiac output?
Homeometric regulation is the heart's ability to increase contractility and restore stroke volume when the afterload increases, occurring independently of cardiomyocyte fibre length, via the Bowditch effect.
How does increasing venous return affect EDV, SV, CO, and BP in the Starling heart-lung preparation?
Increasing venous return leads to an increase in EDV, SV, CO, and BP. The heart rate remains unchanged because there is no Bainbridge reflex in this preparation, and the heart lacks sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation when removed from the chest.
What happens to the pressure in the aorta when peripheral resistance increases?
The pressure in the aorta will increase. This is because peripheral resistance is proportional to afterload.
What is the effect on ESV when afterload is increased?
The ESV will increase when afterload is increased. This occurs because the aortic valve opens later, resulting in more blood remaining in the ventricle at the beginning of the ejection phase.
What parameters can be measured in cardiovascular physiology?
What parameters can be changed in cardiovascular physiology?
How does increasing blood temperature affect heart rate?
Increasing blood temperature causes the heart rate to increase due to the warming of the SA node, which generates more action potentials.
What happens to heart rate if venous return increases?
If venous return increases, the heart rate increases.
What are the resistance vessels in the circulatory system?
The resistance vessels are the arterioles, which can easily increase and decrease their diameter, thereby affecting resistance.
What are the capacitance vessels in the circulatory system?
The capacitance vessels are the veins, which are responsible for storing blood.
What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system in relation to blood vessels?
The sympathetic nervous system innervates all blood vessels except for the capillaries, which do not have parasympathetic innervation.
List some local vasodilators.
Local vasodilators include:
Why is hypoxia a vasodilator in the periphery but a vasoconstrictor in the pulmonary circulation?
In the lungs, hypoxia causes vasoconstriction to prevent blood flow to poorly ventilated alveoli, ensuring blood is directed to well-ventilated areas for effective gas exchange.
Which gas diffuses better through the lipid bilayer, O2 or CO2?
CO2 diffusion is much better through the lipid bilayer compared to O2.
What is the order of blood flow velocity from fastest to slowest?
The order of blood flow velocity is:
In which direction does blood flow in relation to blood pressure?
Blood flows from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure in the circulatory system.
What is the blood pressure hierarchy in the circulatory system at rest?
The blood pressure hierarchy at rest is:
What is the effect of hypoxia on blood vessels in the periphery and pulmonary circulation?
Hypoxia acts as a vasodilator in the periphery and a vasoconstrictor in the pulmonary circulation.
What is the effect of hypercapnia on blood vessels in the brain?
Hypercapnia is a vasodilator in the brain.
What is the effect of hypocapnia on blood vessels in the brain?
Hypocapnia is a vasoconstrictor in the brain.
How does high blood temperature affect blood viscosity?
High blood temperature results in low blood viscosity.
How does hematocrit (Htc) affect the viscosity of blood plasma?
Hematocrit does not affect the viscosity of blood plasma, as plasma contains no cells.
What is the relationship between blood flow velocity and blood viscosity?
When the velocity of blood flow is high, the viscosity of the blood is low.
Is plasma viscosity affected by the diameter of the blood vessels?
No, plasma viscosity is the same in both big arteries and arterioles because plasma is a Newtonian fluid.
Where is blood viscosity higher, in big arteries or arterioles?
Blood viscosity is higher in big arteries and lower in arterioles.
Why is there no fluid in the alveoli?
There is no fluid in the alveoli to allow for gas exchange to occur.
What is the primary difference in hydrostatic pressure between pulmonary circulation and peripheral circulation?
The hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation is significantly lower, with blood pressure in the pulmonary artery at 24/9 mmHg compared to 120/80 mmHg in the periphery, making it insufficient to induce filtration under normal conditions.
Where does edema occur in the case of right ventricular failure?
Edema occurs in the periphery in the case of right ventricular failure.
What is pulse in the context of cardiovascular physiology?
Pulse is the elastic dilation and retraction of the arteries according to the cardiac rhythm, resulting in a palpable, periodic pulsation due to the elasticity of vessel walls, allowing continuous blood flow in veins.
How can pulse be examined?
Pulse can be examined by palpation with fingers or with devices, both non-invasive and invasive.
What are the palpation points for pulse examination?
The palpation points include:
How is the Physical Fitness Index (PFI) measured in the lab?
The Physical Fitness Index (PFI) is measured using the Harvard step test, which involves:
What factors can increase capillary permeability and how do they affect the capillary wall?
Capillary permeability can be increased by several molecules that contract the endothelial cells of the capillary wall, enlarging the pores. These molecules include:
What does curare inhibit in muscle stimulation?
Curare inhibits the nicotinic acetylcholine (Ach) receptors on the muscle.
What happens to the amplitude of muscle contraction when stimulus intensity is increased beyond the maximal threshold?
When the maximal threshold is reached, the maximal recruitment of muscle fibers is also reached, and the amplitude of the contraction cannot increase further.
What equipment is used to measure muscle contraction when stimulating the ulnar nerve?
The equipment used includes:
What causes the grip force to decrease during muscle strength measurement?
The grip force decreases due to muscle fatigue.
What factors can influence muscle fatigue?
Factors that can influence muscle fatigue include:
During exercise, which blood pressure component primarily increases, systolic or diastolic?
During exercise, the systolic pressure primarily increases as more blood needs to be pumped out of the heart.
Which types of cells have membrane potential and which can generate action potential?
All living cells have membrane potential. Only excitable cells like skeletal, neural, and cardiac cells can generate action potential.
What is the optimal length of a sarcomere for maximal contraction force?
2-2.2 um
How long is the titin and nebulin?
The titin is as long as the sarcomere, while the nebulin is as long as the actin.
What does the A-band contain?
Both thick and thin filaments.
What does the I-band contain?
Thin filaments.
What does the H-band contain?
Thick filaments.
How does curare affect the membrane potential of skeletal muscle?
Curare is a non-depolarising muscle relaxer that does not change the membrane potential; it inhibits the nicotinic Ach receptors.
Is the effect of curare reversible or irreversible?
Reversible
What is the difference between direct and indirect stimulation of a muscle?
Direct stimulation involves stimulating the muscle directly, while indirect stimulation involves stimulating the nerve that stimulates the muscle.
In a nerve-muscle preparation placed in curare solution, when will there be a contraction if stimulated directly and indirectly?
There will be a contraction only when stimulated directly, as curare inhibits the receptors on the muscle membrane, preventing contraction during indirect stimulation.
What are the phases of smooth muscle contraction?
What is the difference between tonic and phasic contraction of smooth muscle?
What is the source of Ca2+ in smooth muscle contraction?
Ca2+ is sourced both intracellularly and extracellularly.
What type of innervation do smooth muscles have?
Smooth muscles are innervated by the autonomic nervous system, making them involuntary.
What is the resting membrane potential of smooth muscle?
The resting membrane potential of smooth muscle ranges from -40 mV to -70 mV, which is unstable.
How does the duration of action potential in smooth muscle compare to that in skeletal muscle?
The duration of action potential in smooth muscle is longer compared to that in skeletal muscle, lasting approximately 25 times longer.
What channels are important in the contraction of smooth muscle?
What is the supporting structure of actin in smooth muscle?
Dens plaque.
What is the phosphate source in smooth muscle?
ATP.
What is the function of calmodulin in smooth muscle contraction?
Activate MCL (myosin light chain) kinase.
Can you receive signals from both the agonist and antagonist muscle at the same time?
Yes, both muscles are working simultaneously.
What are the long-term effects of muscle training on the human body?
What is the function of troponin I and troponin C?
In skeletal muscle, is the calcium signal intracellular or extracellular?
Intracellular.
Can skeletal muscle be tetanized?
Yes.
What initiates contraction in smooth muscle instead of troponin?
Smooth muscle contraction is initiated by calmodulin, which binds calcium ions and activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).
How does calcium contribute to smooth muscle contraction?
Calcium ions increase in the cytosolic fluid due to influx from extracellular fluid and release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, leading to the activation of calmodulin and subsequent phosphorylation of myosin light chains.
What is the primary source of calcium ions for smooth muscle contraction?
Most calcium ions needed for smooth muscle contraction come from the extracellular space during action potentials or other stimuli, unlike skeletal muscle which primarily relies on the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
What are the two types of action potentials in smooth muscle?
The two types of action potentials in smooth muscle are: 1. With plateau phase (e.g., arteries) 2. Without plateau phase (e.g., antrum pyloricum).
What is the actin to myosin ratio in smooth muscle compared to skeletal muscle?
The actin to myosin ratio in smooth muscle is 15/1, while in skeletal muscle it is 2/1.
What is the EMG pattern observed in a neurogenic lesion at rest?
In a neurogenic lesion at rest, there is fibrillation and fasciculation, indicating spontaneous activity. The waveform shows increased motor potential with larger amplitude and duration over time due to regeneration.
How does the motor unit potential differ between normal and myogenic lesions?
In normal conditions, the motor unit potential is 0.5-1.0 mv with a duration of 5-10 msec. In myogenic lesions, the motor unit potential is characterized by small units with early recruitment, indicating a reduced size and function of motor units.
What changes occur in the interference pattern of EMG in neurogenic lesions compared to normal conditions?
In neurogenic lesions, the interference pattern shows a reduced fast firing rate and a reduced slow firing rate, leading to a decreased count of motor units. In contrast, normal conditions exhibit a full interference pattern.
What is the significance of increased motor unit size in neurogenic lesions over time?
The increase in motor unit size in neurogenic lesions over time indicates regeneration and results in a huge motor potential with increased amplitude and duration, reflecting the body's attempt to compensate for lost motor units.
What are the main structural characteristics of smooth muscle cells?
Smooth muscle cells are 1-5 um in diameter and 20-500 um in length. They are composed of myocytes, which are thin elongated cells with a single nucleus, containing organelles like mitochondria and filaments (actin and myosin). The arrangement of actin and myosin filaments differs from that in skeletal muscle, with actin filaments attached to dense bodies, which serve a similar role to Z-disks in skeletal muscle.
What are the two types of smooth muscle based on intercellular connections?
The two types of smooth muscle are:
Multi-unit smooth muscle:
Single-unit smooth muscle:
How does the contraction capability of smooth muscle compare to that of skeletal muscle?
Smooth muscle can contract as much as 80 percent of its length, while skeletal muscle can only contract about 30 percent of its length. This is due to the unique arrangement of actin and myosin filaments in smooth muscle, allowing for more extensive contraction.
What is myasthenia gravis and how does it affect skeletal muscles?
Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles due to the production of antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (N-Ach-R) at the neuromuscular junction.
What causes malignant hyperthermia and what are its effects during anesthesia?
Malignant hyperthermia is caused by a mutation of the ryanodine receptors, leading to a severe reaction to certain anesthetic drugs. Activation of these receptors results in muscle activation and increased body temperature (hyperthermia).
What is the main treatment for malignant hyperthermia during surgery?
The main treatment for malignant hyperthermia is the administration of dantrolene. Anaesthesiologists give this drug immediately if malignant hyperthermia is suspected, stop the anesthetic, and the surgeon ends the surgery as soon as possible.
What are the characteristics of neurogenic lesions in EMG examinations?
In neurogenic lesions, there is spontaneous activation of the muscle even when the patient is asked to relax, resulting in EMG signals. The motor unit potential is typically larger than 1 mV, and there is no complete interference.
How do myogenic lesions differ from neurogenic lesions in terms of EMG findings?
In myogenic lesions, the amplitude of the motor unit potential and maximal contraction is smaller than normal, with no resting/spontaneous activity (isoelectric line during relaxation). Complete interference is present but with small amplitude, unlike neurogenic lesions which show larger potentials and spontaneous activity.
What is the role of the transducer in EMG recordings?
The transducer converts the mechanical signal into an electrical signal.
What does the amplifier do in EMG recordings?
The amplifier increases the amplitude of the electrical signal.
How does the filter function in EMG recordings?
The filter removes parts of the noise; for example, to examine signals between 0.5Hz and 50Hz, a 0.5Hz high pass filter and a 50Hz low pass filter are used.
What is the minimum stimulus threshold?
The minimum stimulus threshold is the single pulse with the lowest intensity that can induce a single twitch.
When does the amplitude of the contraction force stop increasing?
The amplitude of the contraction force stops increasing above a certain stimulus intensity called the maximal recruitments threshold.
What occurs if a second action potential arrives before the muscle is fully relaxed?
If a second action potential arrives before the muscle is fully relaxed, the force of the next contraction will be greater, a phenomenon known as summation or superposition.
What happens when the stimulus frequency is increased and the muscle does not fully relax?
If the stimulus frequency is increased and the muscle does not relax completely, the individual twitches will fuse into a single sustained contraction. If the individual twitches are still recognizable, it is called incomplete tetanus; if they fuse completely, it is called complete tetanus.
What are the characteristics of Type I-A muscle fibers?
Type I-A muscle fibers are red fibers caused by myoglobin, are slow-twitch, utilize aerobic glycolysis, show muscle fatigue later, are antigravitational muscles, and have lots of mitochondria. They are typically associated with activities like marathon running.
What are the characteristics of Type II-A and Type II-B muscle fibers?
Type II-A muscle fibers are fast-twitch, have a moderate amount of mitochondria, and utilize both aerobic and anaerobic glycolysis. Type II-B muscle fibers are white fibers caused by glycogen, are fast-twitch, utilize anaerobic glycolysis, show muscle fatigue early, produce more lactate, and are associated with activities like 100m sprints and weightlifting.
What is the effect of regular workout on muscle fibers?
Regular workouts do not increase the number of muscle fibers; instead, they lead to an increase in size known as hypertrophy.
What are the effects of training on muscle?
The effects of training on muscle include:
What causes muscle strain?
Muscle strain is caused by microtrauma, which leads to sterile inflammation in the muscle.
What does EMG stand for and what does it record?
EMG stands for electrical myography and it records the electrical activity of skeletal muscle.
What are the differences between surface and deep electrodes in EMG?
Surface electrodes have a low risk of infection and are less precise, while deep electrodes have a high risk of infection, are painful, but provide more precise measurements.
What is required for muscle activation during contraction?
Both ATP and calcium are required for muscle activation during contraction.
What happens when troponin C binds to calcium?
When troponin C binds to calcium, it changes conformation, which also alters the conformation of the troponin-tropomyosin complex.
What is the angle between the myosin head and neck during muscle contraction and relaxation?
During muscle contraction, the angle between the myosin head and neck is 45°, while during relaxation it is 90°.
How does the myosin head contribute to muscle contraction?
The myosin head binds to the actin site and tilts from 90° to 45°, allowing it to slide towards the Z-line and bind to the next actin, facilitating contraction.
What initiates the release of calcium in skeletal muscle contraction?
The action potential reaches the axon terminal, opening voltage-gated calcium channels, leading to calcium inflow which is crucial for neurotransmitter release.
What role does acetylcholine play in muscle contraction?
Acetylcholine is released into the neuromuscular junction and binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, causing sodium outflow and depolarization of the muscle cell membrane.
What is the sliding filament mechanism in muscle contraction?
The sliding filament mechanism involves the change in angle of the myosin head from 90° to 45°, allowing myosin to bind to actin and cause muscle contraction.
Do we have DHP receptors in the heart?
Yes, DHP receptors are present in the heart.
Do we have ryanodine receptors in the heart?
Yes, ryanodine receptors are present in the heart.
How long is nebulin and what is its function?
Nebulin is as long as the actin filament and functions to support it.
Which bands get shorter during muscle contraction?
The H-band and I-band get shorter during contraction.
What happens during muscle relaxation in terms of calcium and ATP?
During relaxation, there are no calcium signals, and ATP is needed to relax the muscle. Calcium is moved back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum by the calcium-ATPase transporter.
What is the role of the troponin-tropomyosin complex during muscle relaxation?
The troponin-tropomyosin complex occupies the myosin binding site on the actin filament, preventing interaction between actin and myosin during relaxation.
What are the components of the troponin-tropomyosin complex?
The troponin-tropomyosin complex consists of Tropomyosin, Troponin I (inhibits), Troponin C (binds to calcium), and Troponin T.
What is the optimal length of a sarcomere for maximal contraction force?
The optimal length of a sarcomere to exert maximal contraction force is between 2-2.2 micrometers (um).
What are the components of the sarcomere?
The sarcomere consists of:
What is the function of titin in the sarcomere?
Titin connects the Z-line to the myosin and back, anchoring the myosin to the Z-line and is as long as the sarcomere itself.
What does the A-band in the sarcomere contain?
The A-band is as long as the myosin itself and contains both thick and thin filaments.
What is contained within the H-band of the sarcomere?
The H-band is the length between the two actin molecules and contains only thick filaments.
What is the I-band in the sarcomere?
The I-band is from the end of one myosin to the next and contains only thin filaments.
What is muscle fatigue and its significance?
Muscle fatigue is a reversible decrease in the ability of skeletal muscle to exert force in response to physical activity. Its significance is to protect the body from complete depletion.
What are the types of muscle fatigue?
The types of muscle fatigue are:
What are the causes of peripheral fatigue?
The causes of peripheral fatigue include:
In what order does the muscle use energy sources during activity?
The order in which muscle uses energy sources is:
What happens to the muscle when there is no ATP?
When there is no ATP, the muscle cannot contract or relax, leading to a condition known as 'Rigor Mortis', where the muscle becomes stiff.
What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle?
The functional unit of skeletal muscle is the muscle fibre, which varies in length depending on the specific muscle.
What are the characteristics of A-alpha motoneurons?
A-alpha motoneurons have the following characteristics:
What is a motor unit in skeletal muscle?
A motor unit consists of the motoneuron and all the muscle fibres it innervates. Each muscle fibre is innervated by only one motoneuron, while one motoneuron can innervate numerous muscle fibres (10-1000).
What is the motor unit potential?
The motor unit potential is the sum of action potentials from one motor unit.
Can a muscle fibre be innervated by more than one motoneuron?
No, one muscle fibre is only innervated by one motoneuron.
How does the innervation ratio vary among different muscles?
The innervation ratio varies depending on the type of muscle:
What is the role of voltage-gated calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction?
Voltage-gated calcium channels open when the action potential reaches the axon terminal, allowing calcium ions to flow into the terminal due to the electrochemical gradient. This calcium inflow is crucial for the release of neurotransmitters from vesicles into the neuromuscular junction.
How does the action potential travel in myelinated axons?
The action potential travels in a saltatory manner from one node of Ranvier to the next, which increases the conduction velocity of the action potential.
What triggers the release of neurotransmitters at the neuromuscular junction?
The release of neurotransmitters is triggered by the inflow of calcium ions into the axon terminal, which occurs when voltage-gated calcium channels open in response to an action potential.
What is the significance of the electrochemical gradient for calcium ions at the neuromuscular junction?
The electrochemical gradient causes calcium ions to flow into the axon terminal when voltage-gated calcium channels open, as the intracellular concentration of calcium is lower than that in the extracellular space, facilitating neurotransmitter release.
What is the role of acetylcholine in skeletal muscle function?
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that binds to muscle type nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, which are ligand-gated ion channels. This binding opens sodium channels, allowing sodium to flow into the muscle cell, leading to a change in membrane potential.
What is the resting membrane potential (RMP) of skeletal muscle and how is it maintained?
The resting membrane potential of skeletal muscle is normally -90 mV, maintained by the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump, which pumps out 3 Na+ ions and brings in 2 K+ ions.
What occurs during depolarization in skeletal muscle?
During depolarization, the membrane potential becomes less negative, reaching a threshold that opens voltage-gated sodium channels, resulting in an influx of sodium and the generation of an action potential.
What happens during repolarization and hyperpolarization in skeletal muscle?
During repolarization, the membrane potential returns to a more negative value after depolarization. Hyperpolarization occurs when the membrane potential becomes more negative than the resting membrane potential, going below -90 mV.
How does the end plate potential relate to action potential in skeletal muscle?
The end plate potential is the depolarization that occurs when acetylcholine binds to receptors, and if it reaches the threshold, it triggers the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels, leading to the generation of an action potential that spreads throughout the muscle fiber.
What components make up the triad in muscle fibers?
The triad consists of 1 T-tubule (transverse tubule) and 2 Terminal cisternae (connected to longitudinal tubules).
How does the action potential propagate through the muscle fiber?
The action potential penetrates through the muscle fiber via transmission along the T-tubules, which are internal extensions of the cell membrane.
What role do DHP receptors play in muscle contraction?
DHP receptors sense the voltage change when the action potential reaches the T-tubule, triggering the ryanodine receptors to release calcium.
What happens when calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Calcium binds to troponin-C inside the cell, which is crucial for muscle contraction.
What is the main function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
The main function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum is to store and release calcium ions, which are essential for muscle contraction and relaxation.
Where are the DHP (Dihydropyridine) receptors situated and what is their function?
DHP receptors are situated in the wall of the T-tubule and their function is to activate ryanodine receptors.
Where are the ryanodine receptors located and what is their function?
Ryanodine receptors are located in the wall of the terminal cisternae and their function is to release calcium.
Is the space inside the T-tubule intracellular or extracellular?
The space inside the T-tubule is extracellular.
Is the calcium source for muscle contraction in skeletal muscle intracellular or extracellular?
The calcium source for muscle contraction in skeletal muscle is intracellular, coming from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which is inside the cell.
How many calcium ions can bind to one molecule of troponin C?
One molecule of troponin C can bind to 4 calcium ions.