How does cigarette smoking relate to Peripheral Arterial Disease?
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It is a risk factor.
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How does cigarette smoking relate to Peripheral Arterial Disease?
It is a risk factor.
What is the role of aldosterone receptor antagonists in hypertension?
Block aldosterone receptors.
How is the laser probe advanced in Laser-Assisted Angioplasty?
Through a cannula similar to that used for PTA.
At what age does Raynaud's Disease usually occur?
Usually in people older than 30 years of age.
What supportive therapy is recommended for DVT management?
Bed rest and elevation of the extremity.
What relieves the discomfort caused by varicose veins?
Activity or elevation of the legs.
What is the highest incidence of clot formation associated with?
Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis/Thrombosis (DVT).
What factors can constrict or interfere with venous return?
Prolonged standing, obesity, pregnancy, and abdominal tumors.
What is the impact of thrombophlebitis on veins?
It may damage the valves.
How does the destruction of RBCs result in anemia?
It decreases the overall RBC count.
When is a blood transfusion used in hemolytic anemia?
As part of medical management.
What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
Diffuse fibrin deposition within arterioles and capillaries with widespread coagulation and depletion of clotting factors.
What is the cause of DIC?
Unknown.
What diagnostic tool reveals an 'eggshell' appearance in cases of AAA?
X-ray.
What is the standard tool for diagnosing an aneurysm?
CT scan.
What condition is indicated by an 'eggshell' appearance on an X-ray?
AAA (Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm).
What is the underlying cause of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
Underlying disease (e.g., toxemia of pregnancy, cancer).
What blood pressure range defines prehypertension?
120-139/80-89mmHg.
What happens to RBCs in DIC?
They are trapped in fibrin strands and are hemolyzed.
What does an ECG determine in hypertension assessment?
The degree of cardiac involvement.
What follows vascular damage and inflammation in atherosclerosis?
Fatty streak formation.
What is orthostatic hypotension?
A decrease in BP of 20mmHg systolic and/or 10mmHg diastolic when changing position from lying to sitting within 2 minutes.
What do the presence of CHONs, RBCs, pus, and increased BUN & CREA indicate?
Renal disease.
How does a normal aorta compare to one with an aneurysm?
A normal aorta has a uniform diameter, while an aorta with an aneurysm is enlarged and bulging.
Why is heparin administration in DIC considered controversial?
Its use is debated due to varying outcomes.
What is Peripheral Vascular Disease?
Disorders that alter the natural flow of blood through the arteries and veins of the peripheral circulation.
What renal condition can occur in DIC?
Oliguria and acute renal failure.
What should be observed for in patients with DIC?
Signs of additional bleeding or thrombus formation.
What are some causes of secondary hypertension?
Specific disease states and some medications.
What diseases can lead to secondary hypertension?
Renal vascular & renal parenchymal disease, primary aldosteronism, pheochromocytoma, Cushing’s syndrome, coarctation of aorta, brain tumors, encephalitis, psychiatric disturbances, pregnancy.
What is the primary visual difference between a normal aorta and one with a large abdominal aneurysm?
The aorta with a large abdominal aneurysm is significantly enlarged and bulging.
What should be monitored and quantified in patients with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
Blood loss.
What does Peripheral Arterial Disease lead to?
Deprivation of oxygen and nutrients.
How should patients with DIC be turned and positioned?
Gently and frequently.
What is an example of a loop diuretic?
Lasix.
Why is atherosclerosis significant in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
It is the most common cause.
What is the most commonly performed procedure to increase arterial blood flow in an affected limb for Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Arterial revascularization.
Why might ulcers form in Raynaud's Phenomenon?
Due to prolonged vasospasm and reduced blood flow.
What are the main causes of anemia?
Blood loss, inadequate or abnormal RBC production, destruction of RBCs.
What color can iron supplements turn the stool?
Dark green or black.
What is the normal platelet count?
150,000-400,000/mm^3 or 150-400 x 10^9/L
What is hematopoiesis?
The process of blood cell formation.
Where does hematopoiesis occur?
In the bone marrow.
What injection technique is recommended to prevent leakage of iron into tissues?
The Z-track injection technique.
What should be monitored for in patients with iron deficiency anemia?
Signs and symptoms of abnormal bleeding, especially from the GIT.
When is parenteral iron used in iron deficiency anemia management?
In clients intolerant to oral preparations, noncompliant with therapy, or with severe iron deficiency anemia.
What is the normal RBC count for males?
4.7 – 6.1 million/uL or 4.7-6.1 x 10^12 cells/L
What is the function of red blood cells?
To carry oxygen.
Why should one needle be used to withdraw and another to administer iron preparations?
To prevent tissue staining and irritation.
What types of cells are produced during hematopoiesis?
White blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
What is the function of white blood cells?
To fight infection.
What should be administered as ordered for iron deficiency anemia?
Iron preparations.
What is the therapeutic dose of oral iron supplements for iron deficiency anemia?
600-1200 mg daily in divided doses.
What is anemia?
Deficiency of RBCs, Hgb, Hct.
How should activities be planned for patients with iron deficiency anemia?
Plan activities to provide adequate rest and avoid overtiring.
What is the function of platelets?
To control clotting.
What does Hct stand for?
Percentage of PRBCs per dl of blood.
Why is it important to explain diagnostic tests to patients with iron deficiency anemia?
To allay anxiety and ensure cooperation.
What is the normal Hgb range for females?
12-16 g/dL or 120-160 g/L
What is the normal Hgb range for males?
14-18 g/dL or 140-180 g/L
What type of clothing should be avoided after a parenteral iron injection?
Constricting garments.
What is the normal RBC count for females?
4.2 – 5.4 million/uL or 4.2-5.4 x 10^12 cells/L
How can decreased absorption of iron in the GIT cause anemia?
It prevents sufficient iron from entering the bloodstream.
What should be avoided after a parenteral iron injection?
Massaging the injection site.
When should iron be taken to avoid GI upset?
With or immediately after a meal.
What is the normal Hct range for females?
37 – 47% or 0.37 – 0.47 fraction
Why should a straw be used for elixir iron preparations?
To prevent staining of teeth.
What is the normal WBC count?
5,000-10,000/uL or 5.0-10 x 10^9 cells/L
What causes Iron Deficiency Anemia?
Inadequate intake of iron, decreased absorption of iron in GIT, excessive loss of iron.
What are common causes of excessive loss of iron?
Excessive bleeding or blood loss.
What activity is encouraged to enhance absorption after a parenteral iron injection?
Ambulation.
Why should vigorous exercise be avoided after a parenteral iron injection?
It can interfere with absorption.
What type of anemia is Iron Deficiency Anemia?
Microcytic, Hypochromic anemia.
What is the prophylactic dose of oral iron supplements for mild iron losses?
300-325 mg.
What can be taken with iron to enhance absorption?
Orange juice or a vitamin C source.
What can lead to inadequate intake of iron?
Poor diet or nutritional deficiencies.
Which types of liver are recommended for iron deficiency anemia?
Pork and lamb.
What does a blood smear reveal in iron deficiency anemia?
Microcytic & hypochromic RBCs.
What is the normal Hct range for males?
42 – 52% or 0.42 – 0.52 fraction
What is the medical management for pernicious anemia?
Administration of Vitamin B12 (IM) weekly & monthly for maintenance.
What are common assessment findings in iron deficiency anemia?
Reduced energy, cold sensitivity, fatigue, DOE, decreased HR even at rest, decreased CBC, Hgb, Hct, serum Fe, microcytic & hypochromic RBCs.
What are the key components of medical management for iron deficiency anemia?
Treat & eliminate the cause, correct faulty diet, prescribe oral supplements or parenteral iron, and blood transfusion in severe cases.
What should be monitored to minimize risk in aplastic anemia patients?
Signs of infection.
What procedures should be implemented to minimize infection risk in aplastic anemia patients?
Special isolation procedures.
What does a microscopic exam reveal in pernicious anemia?
Large and immature erythrocytes.
How is vitamin B12 normally absorbed in the body?
By combining with intrinsic factor produced by stomach cells.
What types of bread and cereals are high in iron?
Whole-wheat breads and cereals.
What are the three main causes of Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia (FADA)?
Poor nutrition, malabsorption, and drugs.
What is the intrinsic factor and where is it produced?
A substance produced by the gastric mucosa needed for absorption of Vitamin B12.
What is a potential treatment option for severe cases of aplastic anemia?
Bone marrow transplantation.
What is a severe treatment option for iron deficiency anemia?
Blood transfusion.
What should be provided for safety when ambulating in patients with pernicious anemia?
Ensure safety, especially when carrying hot items.
What is absent in folic acid deficiency anemia that is present in Vitamin B12 deficiency?
Neurologic problems.
What dietary teaching should be provided for iron deficiency anemia?
Foods high in iron.
How is iron typically administered in cases of iron deficiency anemia?
Orally or via intramuscular injection.
When is blood transfusion discontinued in aplastic anemia treatment?
If the client's own marrow begins to produce blood cells.
What is iron needed for in RBC production?
Hemoglobin synthesis and giving color to the blood.
What should be monitored to avoid iron overload in patients receiving iron supplements?
Serum ferritin levels.
What medication is used if aplastic anemia is autoimmune?
Corticosteroids.
What condition results from a lack of intrinsic factor?
Pernicious anemia.
What is the significance of decreased HR even at rest in iron deficiency anemia?
It is a symptom indicating reduced oxygen-carrying capacity.
How does blood loss contribute to anemia?
It reduces the number of RBCs.
What is the primary focus of nursing management for iron deficiency anemia?
Administering iron supplements.
What is the definitive test for pernicious anemia?
The Schilling test.
What can result from inadequate absorption of vitamin B12?
Diseases such as pernicious anemia.
What does the Schilling test depend on?
Normal renal and bladder function.
Why should roughage and fluid intake be increased when taking oral iron preparations?
To prevent constipation.
What diseases can cause malabsorption leading to FADA?
Crohn's disease and chronic alcohol abuse.
What should be identified and withdrawn in the management of aplastic anemia?
The offending agent or drug.
What condition results from a lack of folic acid?
Folic acid-deficiency anemia.
What test differentiates pernicious anemia from folic acid deficiency anemia?
Schilling test.
Why does inadequate or abnormal RBC production cause anemia?
It leads to insufficient RBCs in the blood.
How is the Schilling test performed?
By administering 58Co-labeled cobalamin and collecting urine for 24 hours.
What mouth care should be provided for a client with pernicious anemia?
Mouth care before and after meals using a soft toothbrush and nonirritating rinses.
What type of blood is used in transfusions for aplastic anemia?
Fresh whole blood containing all blood components and plasma, less than 24 hours old.
What are common oral symptoms of pernicious anemia?
Stomatitis and glossitis (a smooth, beefy-red tongue).
What symptoms might a patient with iron deficiency anemia experience?
Reduced energy, cold sensitivity, fatigue, DOE.
What type of anemia can folic acid deficiency cause?
Megaloblastic anemia.
Why is Vitamin B12 important for erythrocytes?
Needed for their maturation.
What neurologic symptoms are associated with pernicious anemia?
Numbness and tingling in the arms and legs, and difficulty with gait or balance.
What factors influence the clinical manifestations of hemolytic anemia?
Severity of anemia and the rate of onset (acute vs chronic).
What common side effect can iron supplements cause?
Constipation.
What diagnostic methods are used for pernicious anemia?
Client’s history, symptoms, blood and bone marrow studies.
What role does vitamin B12 play in the body?
Formation of red blood cells, maintenance of the central nervous system, and metabolism.
Why is it important to monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels in iron deficiency anemia?
To assess the effectiveness of treatment.
Which vegetables are high in iron?
Leafy green vegetables and carrots.
What is a common side effect of oral iron supplements?
Gastrointestinal discomfort.
What causes pernicious anemia?
Deficiency of intrinsic factor.
What type of diet should be encouraged to help reduce the incidence of infection in aplastic anemia patients?
High-protein, high-vitamin diet.
What are common symptoms of aplastic anemia?
Weakness and fatigue.
What is the Schilling test used to evaluate?
Vitamin B12 absorption.
What is the Schilling test used for?
To measure absorption of radioactive Vitamin B12 and detect lack of intrinsic factor.
What foods are rich in folic acid?
Beef liver, organ meats, eggs, green leafy vegetables, cabbage, broccoli, yeast, citrus fruits, peanut butter, oatmeal, asparagus.
What condition results from a lack of iron?
Iron-deficiency anemia.
How is iron deficiency anemia diagnosed through blood tests?
Decreased CBC, Hgb, Hct, and serum Fe.
How does chronic alcohol abuse contribute to FADA?
It leads to malnutrition.
What is the first step in the blood clotting mechanism?
Platelet aggregation with formation of a platelet plug.
What is the role of intrinsic factor in the body?
Necessary for absorption of Vitamin B12.
Why is folic acid important for RBC production?
It is needed for the maturation of RBCs.
What type of cells are formed due to Vitamin B12 deficiency?
Megaloblastic or macrocytic cells.
What causes aplastic anemia?
Failure of the bone marrow to produce cells (pluripotent stem cell injury).
What other foods are recommended for iron intake?
Egg yolk and raisins.
What should be administered as ordered for a patient with aplastic anemia?
Blood transfusions and medications.
What medication is used to treat infections in aplastic anemia patients?
Antibiotics.
What laboratory tests are used to assess Hemolytic Anemia?
Hgb/Hct, Reticulocyte count, Coombs' test, Bilirubin (indirect).
What follows platelet aggregation in the blood clotting process?
Blood clotting cascade.
Why does pernicious anemia commonly occur in the elderly?
Due to decreased production of intrinsic factor with age and gastric mucosal atrophy.
What is paresthesia and how is it related to Vitamin B12?
Paresthesia is abnormal nerve function; Vitamin B12 is needed for normal nerve function.
What condition results from bone marrow failure?
Aplastic anemia.
What type of razor is recommended for patients with aplastic anemia?
An electric razor.
What types of meat are high in iron?
Red meat and organ meats.
Which legumes are recommended for iron intake?
Kidney beans.
What dietary advice should be given to patients with iron deficiency anemia?
Increase intake of iron-rich foods like red meat, beans, and leafy greens.
What is the mainstay of treatment for aplastic anemia?
Blood transfusion.
What foods should be avoided if a client with pernicious anemia has stomatitis and glossitis?
Highly seasoned, coarse, or very hot foods.
Why might vitamin C be recommended alongside iron supplements?
It enhances iron absorption.
When might bed rest be necessary for a client with pernicious anemia?
If the anemia is severe.
What type of care should be provided for a client with BM transplantation?
Nursing care.
What are general symptoms of pernicious anemia?
Pallor, fatigue, and DOE (dyspnea on exertion).
What happens to Hgb/Hct levels in Hemolytic Anemia?
They decrease.
What does a positive Coombs' test indicate in Hemolytic Anemia?
Presence of autoimmune features.
What are some acquired causes of hemolytic anemia?
Cardiopulmonary bypass surgery, arsenic or lead poisoning, malarial infection, toxins & hazardous chemicals, transfusion reactions.
What type of toothbrush should be used for patients with aplastic anemia?
A soft toothbrush.
What gastrointestinal symptoms are associated with hemolytic anemia?
Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (N&V), diarrhea, melena, hematuria.
What is the purpose of the Z-track method in intramuscular injections?
To prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissue.
What type of diet should be provided for nursing management of pernicious anemia?
A Vitamin B12-rich diet including liver, organ meats, dried beans, nuts, green leafy vegetables, citrus fruit, and brewer’s yeast.
What type of water should be used for bathing if jaundice and pruritus are present in hemolytic anemia patients?
Cool or tepid water.
What are the three sequential processes involved in blood clotting?
Platelet aggregation, blood clotting cascade, formation of a fibrin clot.
What symptoms are seen in severe cases of pernicious anemia?
Jaundice, irritability, and confusion.
What is the final step in the blood clotting mechanism?
Formation of a complete fibrin clot.
How can iron deficiency anemia be managed through diet?
Correction of faulty diet and oral iron supplements.
What should client teaching and discharge planning for pernicious anemia include?
Dietary instruction, lifelong Vitamin B12 therapy, and safety instructions.
What nursing management strategies are recommended for folic acid deficiency anemia?
Encourage good oral hygiene and adequate rest periods.
What condition results from a lack of Vitamin B12?
Vitamin B12-deficiency anemia.
What is intrinsic factor and why is it important?
A protein produced by stomach cells necessary for vitamin B12 absorption in the small intestine.
Why might cobalamin absorption be abnormal in pernicious anemia?
Due to lack of intrinsic factor.
What should be avoided during bathing if jaundice and pruritus are present in hemolytic anemia patients?
Soap.
Who is usually affected by pernicious anemia?
Elderly and clients with a history of surgical removal of the stomach or bowel resection.
Why is frequent turning and meticulous skin care important in hemolytic anemia patients?
Because skin friability is increased.
What are common assessment findings in folic acid deficiency anemia?
Severe fatigue, sore & beefy red tongue, dyspnea, nausea, anorexia, headaches, weakness, lightheadedness.
How do the manifestations of folic acid deficiency anemia compare to those of Vitamin B12 deficiency?
They are similar except for the nervous system involvement.
What is aplastic anemia?
A deficiency of circulating RBCs usually accompanied by leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.
What happens to the Reticulocyte count in Hemolytic Anemia?
It decreases.
What are common symptoms of chronic hemolytic anemia?
Dyspnea, pallor, fatigue, jaundice.
What helps folic acid move into the cell?
Vitamin B12.
What are some hereditary causes of hemolytic anemia?
Hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency, sickle cell anemia, thalassemia.
Why is Vitamin B12 important for RBC production?
It is needed for the maturation of RBCs.
What type of radiation can cause aplastic anemia?
Ionizing radiation.
Which drugs can prevent the absorption and conversion of folic acid?
Anticonvulsants and oral contraceptives.
Why do anticonvulsants and oral contraceptives cause FADA?
They prevent absorption and conversion of folic acid to its active form.
What lab findings are associated with folic acid deficiency anemia?
Decreased Hgb/Hct and serum folate.
What happens to precursor cells without Vitamin B12?
Undergo improper DNA synthesis.
What condition is present in aplastic anemia?
Pancytopenia.
What dietary advice is given to patients with folic acid deficiency anemia?
Eat soft, bland, and high in folic acid foods.
What is necessary for the maturation of red blood cells (RBCs)?
Folic acid.
How can cardiopulmonary bypass surgery lead to hemolytic anemia?
By causing increased destruction of RBCs.
What should be checked for occult blood in patients with aplastic anemia?
Urine and stool (Hematest).
What signs of bleeding should be observed in patients with aplastic anemia?
Oozing from gums, petechiae, or ecchymoses.
How do intrinsic factors affect blood clotting?
They make platelets clump and activate the blood-clotting cascade.
When should mouth care be provided for aplastic anemia patients?
Before and after meals.
What causes hemolytic anemia?
Increased destruction of RBCs.
What is FeSO4 used to treat?
Iron-Deficiency anemia.
What role does folic acid play in the body?
Proper DNA synthesis and cell division.
What should be monitored in patients with aplastic anemia to minimize risk?
Signs of bleeding.
Why is lifelong Vitamin B12 therapy important for patients with pernicious anemia?
To manage the condition effectively.
What rehabilitation and physical therapy are recommended for patients with pernicious anemia?
Therapy for neurologic deficits and safety instructions.
What type of anemia is caused by hereditary spherocytosis?
Hemolytic anemia.
What is a common feature of conditions causing hemolytic anemia?
Increased destruction of RBCs.
What are common assessment findings in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Ecchymoses, petechial rashes, mucosal bleeding.
What role does bone marrow play in RBC production?
It is the site where RBCs are produced.
What are some long-term exposures that can cause aplastic anemia?
Toxic agents (drugs, chemicals).
What coagulation abnormalities are seen in aplastic anemia?
Unusual bleeding, petechiae, and ecchymoses (bruises).
Why can lead poisoning cause hemolytic anemia?
It leads to increased destruction of RBCs.
What is a key diagnostic finding of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Decrease platelet count.
Why is the platelet release reaction important?
It is crucial for initiating the blood clotting process to prevent excessive bleeding.
What is the definitive test for diagnosing aplastic anemia?
Bone marrow aspiration/biopsy.
What is the most common site for bone marrow aspiration in aplastic anemia?
Iliac crest.
Why is there a decrease in Hgb/Hct in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Due to bleeding.
What test is used to diagnose pernicious anemia?
Schilling test.
How is folic acid deficiency anemia medically managed?
Oral or parenteral folic acid supplements and a well-balanced diet.
What happens to indirect Bilirubin levels in Hemolytic Anemia?
They are elevated.
What type of infections are frequent in aplastic anemia?
Opportunistic infections.
What symptoms might indicate an acute onset of hemolytic anemia?
Chills, fever, irritability, precordial pain.
What infections can lead to aplastic anemia?
Viral infections.
What is the result of a bone marrow biopsy in aplastic anemia?
Low primitive cells.
What condition is indicated by a beefy-red tongue?
Pernicious anemia and Folic Acid Deficiency anemia.
What role does calcium play in the platelet release reaction?
Calcium is essential for the activation and aggregation of platelets.
What surgical procedure is considered if hemolytic anemia does not respond to medical treatment?
Splenectomy.
What type of anemia can result from secondary causes?
Anemia secondary in origin.
What is the primary goal in the medical management of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Treatment of underlying condition and protection from trauma-induced bleeding episodes.
What rare but serious complication can occur in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Intracranial bleed-induced stroke.
What is the first step in the medical management of hemolytic anemia?
Identify and eliminate the cause.
What is the function of collagen in the platelet release reaction?
Collagen triggers platelet adhesion and activation at the site of vascular injury.
What organ is often enlarged in aplastic anemia?
Spleen (splenomegaly).
What substances are liberated during the platelet release reaction?
ADP, serotonin, and thromboxane A2.
How do platelets respond to vascular injury?
They adhere to the exposed collagen and release substances to promote clotting.
Where do petechial rashes commonly appear in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Arms, legs, upper chest, and neck.
What should be assessed in patients with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura to monitor for serious complications?
Neurologic function and mental status.
What medication is administered for autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Corticosteroids.
What type of injection should be avoided in patients with aplastic anemia?
IM injection.
What is erythropoietin and what is its role in RBC production?
A hormone that stimulates RBC production.
What autoimmune condition can cause aplastic anemia?
Autoimmune disorders.
What is the extrinsic pathway in blood clotting?
Factors outside the blood, such as trauma.
What can cause the extrinsic pathway to activate?
Trauma.
What causes Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Autoimmune response.
What happens to platelets in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
They are destroyed, causing slow blood clotting.
What type of anemia is associated with inherited G6PD deficiency?
Hemolytic anemia.
Why are platelet transfusions not routinely performed in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Because the platelets will be destroyed.
What organ enlargements are associated with hemolytic anemia?
Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly.
What triggers the blood clotting cascade mechanism?
Platelet plug formation.
What does a CBC typically show in aplastic anemia?
Macrocytic anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia.
What signs and symptoms of hypoxia should be monitored in hemolytic anemia patients?
Confusion, cyanosis, shortness of breath, tachycardia, and palpitations.
What is the intrinsic pathway in blood clotting?
Problems or substances directly in the blood that make platelets clump and activate the blood-clotting cascade.
What test is used to diagnose hemolytic anemia?
Direct Coomb’s test.
Why does splenomegaly occur in aplastic anemia?
Accumulation of blood cells destroyed by lymphocytes.
What additional condition might be indicated by symptoms of cholelithiasis in hemolytic anemia?
Gallstones.
What percentage of aplastic anemia cases have unknown causes?
50%.
What condition is characterized by pancytopenia?
Aplastic anemia.
What treatment is used for aplastic anemia?
Bone marrow transplant.
How should support be provided to a client with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Be sensitive to change in body image.
What are some examples of intrinsic factors in blood clotting?
Antigen-antibody reaction, circulating debris, prolonged venous stasis, bacterial toxins.
What type of antibodies are present in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Antiplatelet antibodies.
What are autoantibodies directed towards in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Own platelets.
What medications are used to suppress immune function in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Corticosteroids and Azathioprine (Imuran).
What is found in large amounts in the bone marrow of patients with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Megakaryocytes.
Why might jaundice make the assessment of skin color in hypoxia unreliable?
Because jaundice affects skin color.
What type of anemia is Thalassemia?
Hemolytic anemia.
How can the environment be managed to protect clients with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Maintain a safe environment and protect from conditions that can lead to bleeding.
How should pressure be applied to bleeding sites in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
As needed.
What medication should be avoided in patients with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Aspirin.
What can significant blood loss in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura lead to?
Anemia.
What type of anemia is microcytic hypochromic anemia?
Iron-Deficiency anemia.
What should be measured for baseline in patients with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Normal circumference of extremities.
How should medications be administered to patients with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Orally, rectally, or IV, rather than IM.
What is a key nursing intervention for controlling bleeding in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Administer platelet transfusions as ordered.
What deficiency causes pernicious anemia?
Deficient intrinsic factor.
What organs are commonly affected by hemorrhage in DIC?
Kidneys, brain, adrenals, heart, and other organs.
How should a bleeding part be positioned in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Above heart level if possible.
What should be done to prevent bruising in Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Prevent bruising.
How should immunizations be administered to patients with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Subcutaneously (SC) with pressure held on the site for 5 minutes.
What happens to fibrinogen levels and platelet count in DIC?
They are usually depressed.
What type of analgesics should be administered to patients with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Acetaminophen.
What types of diseases are clients with DIC usually critically ill with?
Obstetric, surgical, hemolytic, or neoplastic diseases.
Why is the mortality rate high in DIC?
Because the underlying disease cannot be corrected.
What is arteriosclerosis?
Thickening or hardening of the arterial wall.
What is an aneurysm?
A permanent localized dilation of an artery, enlarging it to at least 2 times its normal diameter.
What is prolonged in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
PT, PTT, and Thrombin.
What is the first step in the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis?
Vascular damage and inflammation.
What are the types of aneurysms?
Fusiform and saccular.
What should be reviewed in a client's history for hypertension assessment?
Client’s risk factors for hypertension.
What is the final stage in the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis?
Plaque formation.
What are the consequences of microthrombi formation in DIC?
Microinfarcts and tissue necrosis.
What symptoms suggest a pheochromocytoma or adrenal medulla tumor?
Tachycardia, sweating, and pallor.
What blood pressure range defines stage 1 hypertension?
140-159/90-99mmHg.
What may DIC be linked with?
Entry of thromboplastic substances into the blood.
Where can petechiae and ecchymoses appear in DIC?
On the skin, mucous membranes, heart, lungs, and other organs.
What is an aneurysm?
A bulging or ballooning in the wall of an artery.
What type of bleeding is prolonged in DIC?
Bleeding from breaks in the skin (e.g., IV or venipuncture sites).
When can severe and uncontrollable hemorrhage occur in DIC?
During childbirth or surgical procedures.
What severe neurological symptoms can occur in DIC?
Convulsions, coma, and death.
What promotes clot deposition throughout the microcirculation in DIC?
Release of thromboplastic substances.
What should be assessed in a psychosocial assessment for hypertension?
Psychosocial stressors such as job-related, economic, and other life stressors.
What are most aneurysms until discovered?
Asymptomatic.
What system is activated due to excessive clotting in DIC?
The fibrinolytic system.
How are most aneurysms discovered?
By routine examination or radiographic study performed for another reason.
What is the most common cause of all aneurysms?
Atherosclerosis.
What are common symptoms of hypertension?
Headaches, dizziness, fainting.
What increases as an aneurysm grows?
The risk of arterial rupture.
How is ultrasonography described in the context of aneurysm diagnosis?
A noninvasive technique.
What are the skin-related assessment findings in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
Petechiae and ecchymoses on the skin.
Where do aneurysms most commonly occur?
In the abdominal aorta.
What is atherosclerosis?
A type of arteriosclerosis involving plaque formation within the arterial wall.
What is an aneurysm?
A weakening of the artery's middle layer (T. media) causing stretching in the inner (T. intima) and outer layers (T. adventitia).
What can laboratory tests assess in relation to hypertension?
Possible causes of secondary hypertension.
What is a major side effect of diuretics?
Hypokalemia.
What are the contributing factors to aneurysms besides atherosclerosis?
Hypertension and cigarette smoking.
What is key in the medical management of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
Identification and control of the underlying disease.
What blood pressure range defines stage 2 hypertension?
160/>100mmHg.
Which part of the body is most frequently affected by Peripheral Vascular Disease?
The lower extremities.
What causes Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Systemic atherosclerosis.
When is weight reduction encouraged for hypertension patients?
If BMI is 25 or higher.
How do thiazide diuretics work?
They prevent Na+ and water reabsorption in the distal tubules while promoting K+ excretion.
What type of aneurysm is specifically mentioned in the diagnostic assessment?
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA).
At which specific anatomic sites do aneurysms tend to occur?
Various specific anatomic sites, most commonly the abdominal aorta.
What does a CT scan determine in the context of an aneurysm?
The size and location.
What characterizes a fusiform aneurysm?
Diffuse dilation affecting the entire circumference of the artery.
What is considered normal adult blood pressure according to the 2003 classification?
<120mmHg systolic and <80mmHg diastolic.
What does a CXR reveal in hypertension assessment?
Cardiomegaly.
What happens to platelets, prothrombin, and other clotting factors in DIC?
They are destroyed, leading to bleeding.
What is the effect of the activated fibrinolytic system in DIC?
It inhibits platelet function, causing further bleeding.
What are some risk factors associated with essential hypertension?
Age >60 years, family history, excessive calorie consumption, physical inactivity, excessive alcohol intake, hyperlipidemia, African-American ethnicity, high intake of salt or caffeine, reduced intake of K+, Ca++, Mg++, obesity, smoking, stress.
What should be applied to bleeding sites in patients with DIC?
Pressure.
How do loop diuretics work?
They depress Na+ reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle and promote K+ excretion.
What are the equivalents of 1 ounce of ethanol in different alcoholic beverages?
2 ounces of liquor, 8 ounces of wine, or 24 ounces of beer.
Which factor assays are depressed in DIC?
Factors II, V, and VII.
What type of hypertension has no diagnostic laboratory tests?
Essential hypertension.
What effect does the weakening of the middle layer of an artery have?
It produces a stretching effect in the inner (T. intima) and outer layers (T. adventitia).
Where is the aneurysm located in the provided image?
In the abdominal aorta.
What is the role of heparin in the management of DIC?
Inhibits thrombin to prevent further clot formation and allows coagulation factors to accumulate.
What type of pain is associated with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?
Steady with a gnawing quality abdominal, flank, or back pain.
What is the drug of choice for hypertensive clients with asthma, CAL, and chronic renal disease?
Diuretics.
What characterizes a saccular aneurysm?
An outpouching affecting only a distinct portion of the artery.
What is the cause of essential (primary) hypertension?
No known cause.
What medications can cause secondary hypertension?
Estrogen (oral contraceptives), glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, sympathomimetics.
What type of injections should be avoided in patients with DIC?
IM injections.
What is another name for PAD of the lower extremities?
Lower Extremity Arterial Disease (LEAD).
What does inflow obstruction in Peripheral Arterial Disease involve?
The distal end of the aorta and the common, internal, external iliac arteries.
Why should clients with PAD refrain from raising their legs above heart level?
Extreme elevation slows arterial blood flow to the feet.
Which layer of the artery is weakened in an aneurysm?
The middle layer (T. media).
What types of blood transfusions are used in the management of DIC?
WB, PRBC, platelets, plasma, cryoprecipitates, and volume expanders.
Why is an aneurysm dangerous?
It can rupture, leading to life-threatening internal bleeding.
What are the signs of a rupturing AAA?
Hypotension, diaphoresis, mental obtundation, oliguria, and dysrhythmias.
What condition do the signs of a rupturing AAA indicate?
Hypovolemic shock.
What should be prevented in patients with DIC?
Further injury.
How much alcohol should be limited to manage hypertension?
No more than 1 ounce of ethanol daily.
What does outflow obstruction in Peripheral Arterial Disease involve?
Femoral, popliteal, and tibial arteries.
What substances should be avoided to help manage hypertension?
Tobacco and caffeine.
What type of data should be monitored in patients with DIC?
Appropriate laboratory data.
What is an aneurysm?
An abnormal bulge in the wall of a blood vessel.
What diagnostic technique is used for assessing an aneurysm?
Ultrasonography.
What type of support should be provided to patients with DIC and their significant others?
Emotional support.
How does Pentoxifylline (Trental) improve blood flow to the extremities?
By inhibiting platelet aggregation and decreasing fibrinogen.
What happens to BP readings in the thigh and calf in the presence of arterial disease?
They are lower than the brachial pressure.
What is Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?
Chronic partial or total arterial occlusion resulting from systemic atherosclerosis.
What do calcium channel blocking agents do to blood pressure?
Lower BP by causing vasodilation.
What is an example of a K+-sparing diuretic?
Spironolactone (Aldactone).
How is hypertension managed in patients with an aneurysm?
With anti-hypertensive agents.
Why are beta blockers recommended for hypertensive clients with ischemic heart disease?
They protect the heart from end-organ damage.
What happens to the extremities in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
They become cold and cyanotic; pallor occurs when elevated.
Why should direct heat never be applied to the limb in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Sensitivity might be decreased, leading to burn injury.
What is the most sensitive and specific indicator of arterial function in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
The quality of the posterior tibial pulse.
What causes vasoconstriction in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Emotional stress, caffeine, and nicotine.
What is the recommended sodium intake for hypertension management?
Less than 100mEq/L.
What should be monitored when a patient is on diuretics?
K+ level, irregular pulse, and muscle weakness.
What should be administered to patients with DIC as ordered?
Blood transfusions and medications.
What type of drug is Pentoxifylline (Trental)?
A hemorheologic agent.
What is an inexpensive, noninvasive method of assessing PAD?
Segmental Systolic BP measurements using a Doppler probe.
What are the skin characteristics associated with Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Dry, scaly, dusky, pale or mottled skin; thickened toenails.
What is Peripheral Arterial Disease?
A condition where arteries in the limbs are narrowed, reducing blood flow.
How is Exercise Tolerance Testing performed?
By stress test or treadmill.
Why should long periods of exposure to cold be prevented in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
To promote vasodilation.
What is Peripheral Arterial Disease?
A condition involving obstruction of arteries outside the heart.
What type of mouth care should be provided to patients with DIC?
Frequent nontraumatic mouth care using a soft toothbrush or gauze sponge.
Where are the arteries involved in inflow obstruction located?
Above the inguinal ligament.
What are the risk factors for Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus (DM), cigarette smoking, obesity, and familial predisposition.
What is a controversial aspect of positioning clients with Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?
Positioning to promote circulation.
Where are the arteries involved in outflow obstruction located?
Below the superficial femoral artery.
What should clients with PAD avoid to prevent interference with blood flow?
Crossing the legs and wearing restrictive clothing.
Which drugs are examples of calcium channel blocking agents?
Verapamil, Amlodipine, Diltiazem.
What does an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm Resection involve?
Excision of the aneurysm from the abdominal aorta to prevent or repair rupture.
How do BP readings in the thigh and calf normally compare to those in the upper extremities?
They are normally higher.
What is the characteristic leg pain called in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Intermittent claudication.
What information does ultrasonography provide about an aneurysm?
Size and location of the aneurysm.
What is the most common cause of Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Atherosclerosis.
How should one start an exercise program for hypertension management?
Start slowly and gradually work up to more rigorous activities.
How do ACE inhibitors help in hypertension?
Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to II.
What is the function of angiotensin II receptor blockers?
Block angiotensin II receptors.
What is the goal of nonsurgical management for an aneurysm?
To monitor the growth of the aneurysm and maintain BP at a normal level to reduce the risk of rupture.
Which drugs are examples of ACE inhibitors?
Captopril, Enalapril, Lisinopril.
What causes Raynaud's Disease?
Vasospasm of the arterioles and arteries of the upper and lower extremities.
What is the etiology of Raynaud's Disease?
Unknown.
What symptom forces clients with intermittent claudication to stop walking?
Cramping, burning muscle discomfort or pain.
What is the primary treatment approach for Buerger's Disease?
Smoking cessation.
How do K+-sparing diuretics work?
They inhibit Na+ reabsorption in the DCT in exchange for K+, thereby retaining K+.
What is the purpose of frequent CT scanning in nonsurgical management of an aneurysm?
To monitor the growth of the aneurysm.
For which clients is Laser-Assisted Angioplasty reserved?
Clients with smaller occlusions in the distal superficial femoral, proximal popliteal, and common iliac arteries.
What is the purpose of Laser-Assisted Angioplasty?
To open occluded or stenosed arteries.
How can increased blood viscosity be prevented in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
By drinking adequate fluids.
What should be noted for early signs in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Ulcer formation.
What ABI value is diagnostic of PAD?
<0.9 in either leg.
What is a common intervention for Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Graft bypass.
What happens to the extremities during a vasospasm in Raynaud's Phenomenon?
Blanching followed by cyanosis.
How might clients with severe PAD and swelling sleep for comfort?
With the affected limb hanging from the bed or sitting upright in a chair.
What is arteriography and why is it not commonly performed today?
It involves injecting contrast medium into the arterial system and has risks like hemorrhage, thrombosis, embolus, and death.
What does the heat from the laser do in Laser-Assisted Angioplasty?
Vaporizes the arteriosclerotic plaque.
Can Raynaud's Disease occur in younger individuals?
Yes, it can occur between the ages of 17 and 50 years.
How is the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) calculated?
By dividing the ankle BP by the brachial BP.
What is another name for Buerger's Disease?
Thromboangiitis Obliterans.
What is rest pain in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Numbness or burning sensation severe enough to awaken clients at night.
Where is rest pain typically located in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
In the distal portion of the extremities (heel, toes).
What symptoms are associated with outflow disease in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Burning or cramping in the calves, ankles, feet, and toes.
What physical finding is commonly used to diagnose Buerger’s Disease?
Peripheral ischemia leading to ulceration and gangrene.
What is the purpose of Pentoxifylline (Trental) in treating Peripheral Arterial Disease?
To increase flexibility of RBCs and decrease blood viscosity.
What are the preferred grafts for bypass procedures in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Saphenous vein, cephalic or basilic arm veins, synthetic materials like polytetrafluoroethylene, Gore-Tex, and Dacron.
What is one intervention to promote vasodilation in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Provide warmth to the affected extremity.
What is the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) used for?
Diagnosing PAD.
How does vessel constriction affect blood supply in Raynaud's Phenomenon?
It decreases the blood supply to the fingers.
What is the purpose of a graft bypass in treating Peripheral Arterial Disease?
To restore blood flow to the affected limb.
What familial factor contributes to Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Familial predisposition.
What is Laser-Assisted Angioplasty?
An invasive procedure using a laser probe to open occluded or stenosed arteries.
Which drugs are examples of angiotensin II receptor blockers?
Candesartan, Losartan, Telmisartan.
What is the main goal of drug therapy in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
To improve blood flow to the extremities.
What physical changes occur on the lower calf, ankle, and foot in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Loss of hair.
What should be palpated in both legs to assess Peripheral Arterial Disease?
All pulses.
What is a common symptom of Buerger's Disease?
Pain in the limbs.
What is the purpose of arterial revascularization in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
To increase arterial blood flow in an affected limb.
What is the goal of surgical management for an aneurysm?
To secure stable aortic integrity and tissue perfusion throughout the body.
What valuable information does Exercise Tolerance Testing provide?
Information about claudication (muscle pain) without rest pain.
What is Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty (PTA)?
An invasive procedure where arteries are dilated with a balloon catheter.
What does a graft bypass do in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
It reroutes blood flow around a blocked artery.
What causes the cutaneous vessels to constrict in Raynaud's Phenomenon?
Vasospasm.
What synthetic materials are used for grafts in bypass procedures for Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Polytetrafluoroethylene, Gore-Tex, and Dacron.
What is the role of antiplatelet agents like ASA in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
To prevent platelet aggregation.
What is Exercise Tolerance Testing used for in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
To assess claudication (muscle pain) without rest pain.
Which gender is more commonly affected by Raynaud's Disease?
Women.
What is Raynaud's Phenomenon?
A condition where constriction of vessels decreases blood supply to fingers, causing them to turn pale.
What causes the fingers to turn pale in Raynaud's Phenomenon?
Decreased blood supply due to constriction of vessels.
Where is the cannula inserted in PTA?
Into or above an occluded or stenosed artery.
What follows blanching in the extremities during Raynaud's Phenomenon?
Cyanosis.
What are the components of Virchow's triad?
Endothelial injury, venous stasis, and hypercoagulability.
What happens to pulses in patients with Buerger’s Disease?
Pulses are diminished.
How long does one cigarette cause vasoconstriction?
1 hour.
What part of the body is commonly affected by Buerger's Disease?
Limbs (arms and legs).
What discomfort is associated with inflow disease in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Discomfort in the lower back, buttocks, or thighs.
What may be used along with PTA to help keep the vessel open?
Stents (wirelike devices).
What risk is increased by Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
Risk for pulmonary embolism.
What is a major risk factor for Buerger's Disease?
Smoking.
What is the first clinical manifestation of Buerger’s Disease?
Claudication of the arch of the foot.
What part of the body is primarily affected by Raynaud's Phenomenon?
The fingers.
Why is a graft bypass necessary in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
To bypass the blocked artery and improve circulation.
What is a key intervention for managing Buerger’s Disease?
Complete abstinence from tobacco in all forms.
What are some side effects of drug therapy for Raynaud's Disease?
Facial flushing, headaches, hypotension, and dizziness.
How does exercise help in Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Improves arterial blood flow through buildup of collateral circulation.
What is the focus of treatment for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
Prevent complications like pulmonary emboli, prevent further thrombus formation, and prevent an increase in thrombus size.
What symptoms may be present in Raynaud's Phenomenon besides blanching and cyanosis?
Numbness, coldness, pain, swelling, ulcers.
What is the treatment for Buerger’s Disease similar to?
Treatment for Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD).
What is phlebothrombosis?
A thrombus without inflammation.
Who should not participate in exercise for Peripheral Arterial Disease?
People with severe rest pain, venous ulcers, or gangrene.
How are arteries dilated in PTA?
With a balloon catheter advanced through a cannula.
Where is the graft placed in a graft bypass procedure?
Around the blocked artery.
Why should patients with Buerger’s Disease avoid extreme cold?
To prevent vasoconstriction.
What is an embolus?
A blood clot, air, or fat that has moved from its place of origin and can obstruct circulation in a blood vessel.
What is the primary goal of treatment for Raynaud's Disease?
Relieving or preventing vasoconstriction.
What are the classic signs and symptoms of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
Calf or groin tenderness and pain, sudden onset of unilateral swelling of the leg.
What is considered the gold standard for diagnosing DVT?
Contrast venography.
How does Warfarin work in the body?
It inhibits the synthesis of four vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver.
What symptoms indicate increased sensitivity in Buerger’s Disease?
Coldness and numbness.
What does Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis/Thrombosis (DVT) affect?
The deep vein of the lower extremities.
What is thrombophlebitis?
A thrombus associated with inflammation.
What is a familial tendency in the context of varicose veins?
A genetic predisposition to developing varicose veins.
How long does it take for Warfarin to exert therapeutic anticoagulation?
3-4 days.
What color change occurs first in the extremities during Raynaud's Phenomenon?
Blanching.
Why is checking Homan’s sign not advised for DVT?
Only 10% of clients appear to be positive from this test.
What conditions increase the risk of DVT during pregnancy?
Pregnancy itself increases the risk of DVT.
What other diagnostic methods are used for varicose veins?
Ultrasonography and venography.
What is a thrombus?
A blood clot usually as a result of endothelial injury, venous stasis, or hypercoagulability.
How is vasoconstriction in Raynaud's Disease typically managed?
By drug therapy.
What is the mechanism of action of Warfarin in DVT management?
Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
What is the drug of choice (DOC) for managing Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
Anticoagulant.
How can prolonged standing contribute to varicose veins?
It can cause venous congestion or pooling.
What are varicose veins also known as?
Varicosities.
What procedure is performed for severe Raynaud's Disease symptoms not relieved by drugs?
Lumbar sympathectomy.
What additional measures are important in managing Raynaud's Disease?
Health teaching and education.
What is one intervention for Peripheral Arterial Disease?
Exercise.
What should you avoid doing to the affected extremity in DVT?
Do not massage the affected extremity.
What is the Brodie-Trendelenburg test used for?
Diagnosing varicose veins.
What signs and symptoms should clients with DVT watch out for?
Signs and symptoms of bleeding.
Which blood disorder is linked to a higher risk of DVT?
Polycythemia vera.
What is the primary drug therapy for managing Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
Warfarin therapy.
How do varicose veins appear under the skin?
Distended and tortuous, seen as dark blue or purple, snakelike elevations.
What is a common side effect of Unfractionated Heparin Therapy?
Bleeding.
What is the antidote for Unfractionated Heparin Therapy?
Protamine sulfate.
What are esophageal varices?
Varicose veins in the esophagus.
What is the medical management for severe or multiple varicose veins?
Surgery.
What is the main function of thrombolytic therapy in DVT management?
Dissolving clots or preventing new clots.
What should the nurse remind the client to do in the immediate postoperative period for varicose veins?
Alternately contract and relax the lower leg muscles.
Why is exercise individualized for each client with Peripheral Arterial Disease?
To accommodate their specific condition and limitations.
What is the purpose of Unfractionated Heparin Therapy in DVT management?
To prevent formation of other clots and prevent enlargement of the existing clot.
Why should clients with DVT avoid contact sports?
To prevent traumatic situations while on warfarin or heparin.
What lifestyle change can help manage mild varicose veins?
Losing weight.
How is the Brodie-Trendelenburg test performed?
Client lies flat, elevates the leg, tourniquet is applied to the upper thigh, and the client stands.
What should individuals with DVT avoid to reduce the risk of recurrence?
Smoking and oral contraceptives.
What type of clothing is recommended for managing mild varicose veins?
Elastic support stockings.
What happens during vein stripping?
Ligated veins are severed and removed.
What might localized edema in one extremity suggest?
Thrombophlebitis.
What imaging techniques are used to diagnose DVT?
Duplex ultrasonography, Doppler flow studies, impedance plethysmography, MRI.
Where does Warfarin exert its effect to manage DVT?
In the liver.
What are incompetent valves and when do they typically occur?
Valves that do not function properly, often occurring in early adulthood.
What areas of the body may appear swollen due to varicose veins?
Feet, ankles, and legs.
What indicates incompetent valves in the Brodie-Trendelenburg test?
Blood flows from the upper part of the leg into the superficial veins.
Which gastrointestinal condition is associated with a higher risk of DVT?
Ulcerative colitis.
Which veins are commonly affected by varicose veins?
Saphenous leg veins.
What types of trauma are associated with a higher risk of DVT?
Trauma in general increases the risk of DVT.
What is a serious complication of thrombolytic therapy?
Intracerebral bleeding.
What are common symptoms of varicose veins?
Legs feel heavy and tired, particularly after prolonged standing.
Who are at high risk of developing DVT?
Clients who have undergone hip surgery, total knee replacement, or open prostate surgery.
What medications are commonly prescribed to clients with DVT upon discharge?
Warfarin or heparin.
Which invasive procedure is linked to a higher incidence of DVT?
IV therapy.
What are hemorrhoids?
Varicose veins in the rectum.
What is the primary drug therapy for managing Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
Thrombolytic therapy.
When should Unfractionated Heparin Therapy be discontinued?
If there is severe heparin-induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis.
Why might Unfractionated Heparin Therapy cause thrombocytopenia and thrombosis?
Due to platelet aggregation.
What are varicose veins?
Dilated tortuous veins.
Which type of cancer is linked to an increased risk of DVT?
Adenocarcinoma of the visceral organs.
What type of exercise is recommended for mild varicose veins?
Walking and swimming.
How does heart failure contribute to DVT risk?
Heart failure increases the risk of clot formation.
What autoimmune disease is associated with an increased risk of DVT?
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).
What should be assessed in patients with varicose veins?
Skin, distal circulation, peripheral edema.
How should the nurse position the bed in the immediate postoperative period for varicose vein patients?
Elevate the foot of the bed.
What does the nurse monitor postoperatively in patients with varicose veins?
Swelling in the operative leg(s) and its effect on circulation.
What role does immobility play in DVT?
Immobility increases the risk of clot formation.
Why are saphenous leg veins commonly affected by varicose veins?
They lack support from surrounding muscles.
How do oral contraceptives affect DVT risk?
They increase the risk of clot formation.
What are some examples of thrombolytic agents used in DVT management?
Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator, Alteplase, Reteplase.
What should be avoided to help manage mild varicose veins?
Prolonged sitting and standing.
Where else can varicose veins occur besides the legs?
Rectum (Hemorrhoids) and Esophagus (Esophageal varices).
What is vein ligation?
Veins are tied off above and below the area of incompetent valves, but the dysfunctional vein remains.
How can a nurse facilitate blood flow postoperatively in varicose vein patients?
By removing and rewrapping the roller bandage.
What should the nurse inspect the dressing for in varicose vein patients?
Signs of active bleeding.
