What is the shawl sign?
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A red/purple rash over the shoulders, upper back, and neck, resembling a shawl draped over these areas.
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What is the shawl sign?
A red/purple rash over the shoulders, upper back, and neck, resembling a shawl draped over these areas.
What are the clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Common features include fatigue, joint pain, skin rashes, and organ involvement.
What does myositis refer to?
A group of inflammatory muscle diseases characterized by muscle inflammation leading to muscle weakness.
What is a clinical finding associated with dermatomyositis?
The V sign rash.
What does MMR stand for?
Measles, Mumps, and Rubella vaccine.
What are the initial diagnostic steps for assessing inflammatory conditions?
Check inflammatory markers including CBC, acute-phase response, and liver function.
Is skin involvement necessary for a diagnosis of Systemic Lupus?
No, skin involvement is not necessary but often develops.
What is the recommendation for patients on long-term prednisone regarding non-live attenuated vaccines?
Defer other non-live attenuated vaccines except for the flu vaccine.
What does ACIP stand for?
Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices.
What type of nerve involvement can occur in polyarteritis nodosa?
Peripheral nerve involvement.
What clinical reflex is associated with C5?
Biceps reflex.
What are the main characteristics of Paget disease?
Increased bone resorption, disorganized and accelerated bone remodeling by osteoblasts, leading to thick but fragile bone.
What type of arthritis is Case 2 associated with?
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA).
What are the main types of cells in the adaptive immune system?
B cells (produce antibodies) and T cells (CD4+ helper T cells, CD8+ cytotoxic T cells).
Which type of arteries are most responsive to corticosteroids alone?
Large arteries.
What radiographic features are associated with Paget disease?
Thickening of cortical and trabecular bone, wedge-shaped (flame sign) lesions, and bowing of the femur or tibia.
What characterizes chronic tophaceous arthritis?
Repetitive precipitation of urate crystals, chalky deposits, and pannus that destroys underlying cartilage.
What is Signal 2 of B cell activation?
CD40/CD40 ligand binding.
What are tophi?
Large aggregates of urate crystals.
What role do Fas/Fas ligand play in immune tolerance?
They trigger apoptosis in self-reactive cells.
How does the pain in rheumatoid arthritis respond to activity?
It improves slightly with activity.
What causes 90% of gout cases?
Inefficient renal excretion of urate rather than overproduction.
What is the role of glucocorticoids during acute flares?
They provide rapid relief from inflammation and symptoms during acute exacerbations.
What are common presentations of drug-induced lupus (DILS)?
Rash or arthritis.
What is the role of CD3 in T cell activation?
CD3 is an intracellular signaling component that aids in T cell activation.
What is the mechanism of action of toxoid vaccines?
Inactivated exotoxins induce neutralizing Ig and require adjuvants to increase reactivity.
What are some extra-articular symptoms that can indicate a rheumatic diagnosis?
Fever, skin rashes, nodules, eye involvement, mouth ulcers, Raynaud’s phenomenon, pulmonary symptoms, cardiovascular issues, neurological symptoms, and kidney involvement.
What is a key consideration regarding glucosamine in rheumatoid arthritis treatment?
Glucosamine does not reduce inflammation and is not useful in RA.
What is a renal criterion for SLE?
Proteinuria or cellular casts.
What lab finding is associated with Paget's disease?
Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP).
What is sarcoid myositis?
A rare form of sarcoidosis where granulomas involve skeletal muscles, leading to inflammation and damage.
What should be done with methotrexate after receiving the influenza vaccine?
Hold methotrexate for 2 weeks after vaccination.
What are the clinical features of sarcoidosis?
Enlarged hilar lymph nodes and a reticulated pattern in joints (less common).
What is a key diagnostic step for Takayasu arteritis?
Check blood pressure in both arms.
What are gouty tophi?
Nodular masses of monosodium urate crystals deposited in the soft tissues of the body.
What is the type of medication commonly used in the treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
DMARD (Disease-Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drug).
What type of crystals are found in gouty tophi?
Monosodium urate crystals.
What type of inflammation is associated with polyarteritis nodosa?
Necrotizing.
What is a key feature of Cutaneous Lupus?
Follicular plugging.
Which organ is spared in polyarteritis nodosa?
The lungs.
What type of lesions are associated with Cutaneous Lupus?
Paste lesions.
What is the main characteristic that differentiates arthritis from nonarticular rheumatological disease?
Arthritis primarily involves inflammation of the joints, while nonarticular rheumatological diseases affect other tissues and systems without joint inflammation.
What is the chemical symbol for Samarium?
Sm.
What is pseudogout also known as?
Familial chondrocalcinosis.
What is LAIV4?
Live Attenuated Influenza Vaccine, quadrivalent.
What type of element is Samarium?
A lanthanide.
What distinguishes inflammatory arthritis from non-inflammatory arthritis?
Inflammatory arthritis is characterized by joint inflammation, pain, and swelling, while non-inflammatory arthritis typically involves joint pain without significant inflammation.
What is a potential mechanism underlying vaccine-mediated autoimmunity?
Molecular mimicry, where vaccine antigens resemble self-antigens.
What health risks increase during menopause for individuals with RA?
Increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
How can adjuvants in vaccines contribute to autoimmunity?
By enhancing immune responses that may lead to self-reactivity.
What does VAR stand for?
Varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.
What type of arthritis is Case 1 associated with?
Non-inflammatory arthritis, specifically osteoarthritis.
What role do genetic predispositions play in vaccine-mediated autoimmunity?
Individuals with certain genetic backgrounds may be more susceptible to autoimmune reactions post-vaccination.
What serology tests are important in diagnosing certain inflammatory conditions?
ANCA tests (proteinase vs. myeloperoxidase).
What reflex corresponds to C7?
Triceps reflex.
What leads to inflammation and damage in sarcoid myositis?
The involvement of granulomas in skeletal muscles.
What does WG stand for in the context of autoimmune diseases?
Wegener’s Granulomatosis.
What is the abbreviation for Microscopic Polyangiitis?
MPA.
How common is the reticulated pattern in joints in sarcoidosis?
Less common.
What does CSS refer to in autoimmune conditions?
Churg Strauss Syndrome (Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis).
What is a characteristic symptom of Takayasu arteritis?
Pulseless disease, indicated by absent pulse and presence of bruits.
Where are gouty tophi typically deposited?
In the soft tissues of the body.
What are Gottron’s papules?
Purple lesions on the dorsal part of the hand.
What are some types of myositis?
Dermatomyositis, polymyositis, and inclusion body myositis.
How can you distinguish lupus rash from dermatomyositis?
Lupus spares the nasal labial fold, while dermatomyositis involves it.
What vaccines are included in the 2024 ACIP Recommended Adult Immunization Schedule?
LAIV4, MMR, and VAR.
Which demographic is more likely to experience testicular pain in polyarteritis nodosa?
Men.
What should be ensured before pregnancy?
Vaccination.
Is Hydroxychloroquine safe during pregnancy and breastfeeding?
Yes, but it should be monitored carefully.
What are the characteristics of acute Cutaneous Lupus?
Facial erythema, widespread erythema, bullous lesions, and cheilitis.
What is the recommended hold period for glucocorticoids?
4 weeks.
What is a significant pathological feature of polyarteritis nodosa?
Necrosis.
What causes pseudogout?
Accumulation of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joints.
What type of disorder is Paget disease?
A non-neoplastic disorder of the bone.
What is the recommended hold period for methotrexate?
4 weeks.
What is the atomic number of Samarium?
What type of mutation is associated with pseudogout?
Germline mutation in the pyrophosphate transport channel.
What is gout?
A disorder of purine metabolism characterized by acute attacks of inflammatory arthritis due to urate crystal deposition.
What condition resembles psoriasis but worsens with sun exposure?
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).
What are some common uses of Samarium?
In magnets, lasers, and nuclear reactors.
What characterizes Stage I of Paget's disease?
Hot osteolytic stage with large osteoclasts and increased nuclei.
Which gender is more affected by osteoarthritis?
Females are more affected than males.
How is pseudogout differentiated from gout in laboratory analysis?
By the presence of monosodium urate (MSU) crystals in synovial fluid for gout.
What types of autoimmune diseases are associated with autoreactive Th1 or Th17 cells?
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA), Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), Psoriasis, Crohn’s disease, and Multiple Sclerosis (MS).
Is Samarium naturally occurring?
Yes, it is found in various minerals.
Which reflex is associated with L4?
Knee jerk.
What is the significance of differentiating types of myositis?
It helps in accurate diagnosis and treatment of the condition.
Which vaccines are contraindicated in immunocompromised individuals?
LAIV4, MMR, and VAR.
What is recommended for women using biologics?
They need to be on birth control.
Which reflex is associated with C6?
Brachioradialis reflex.
What are common clinical features of Paget disease?
Asymptomatic, localized bone pain, cranium enlargement, platybasia, pelvic alterations, hearing loss, and high output cardiac failure.
What is the classic triad of Wegener’s Granulomatosis?
Upper respiratory tract, lungs, and kidneys involvement.
What are the key symptoms of osteoarthritis as described in the vignette?
Dull and aching pain, stiffness after rest lasting less than 30 minutes, and pain relieved by rest and acetaminophen.
What is vasculitis?
Inflammation in the blood vessel walls that causes vessel narrowing, blockage, aneurysm, or rupture.
What condition is Churg Strauss Syndrome associated with?
Asthma.
What phase is referred to as the 'cold' or 'burnt out' phase in Paget's disease?
Stage III.
What triggers anergy in T cells?
CTLA-4 upon activation.
Which age group is primarily affected by Henoch Schonlein Purpura?
Children.
What is gouty nephropathy?
Renal complications arising from urate crystals.
What is the severity rating of pain for the patient with rheumatoid arthritis?
7/10.
What are the two mechanisms by which allergens and adjuvants work?
They bind to innate receptors (TLRs) to stimulate TNF alpha and induce maturation of dendritic cells, or bind directly to TLR on dendritic cells to trigger maturation.
What did the ultrasound reveal in the patient's shoulder?
Fluid in the bursa.
What are COX-2 selective NSAIDs?
NSAIDs that specifically inhibit the COX-2 enzyme, such as celecoxib and etoricoxib.
What is a hematological criterion for SLE?
Hemolytic anemia.
What is a T-cell co-stimulation blocker mentioned?
Abatacept.
What are potential cardiac issues in these clinical conditions?
Conduction abnormalities.
What are the potential adverse effects of cyclosporine?
Adverse effects include nephrotoxicity, hypertension, and increased risk of infections.
What should be done with bDMARDs before surgery?
They should be withheld before surgery; if missed, wait two weeks to restart.
What crystals are identified in pseudogout?
Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals.
What percentage of SLE cases show positive dsDNA?
60%.
What enzyme is involved in the salvage pathway for purines?
HGPRT.
What are common adverse effects (AEs) associated with plaque psoriasis treatments?
Weight loss, depression, and suicidal ideation.
What physical examination findings are associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
Synovitis, polyarticular joints, involvement of wrist, 2nd, 3rd MCP and MTP joints (hip involvement is rare).
What are some adverse effects of Allopurinol?
Hypersensitivity reactions, Steven Johnson syndrome, and toxic epidermal necrolysis.
What is the greatest cause of death among medication groups?
NSAIDs.
What crystals are associated with chondrocalcinosis?
Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (Ca py) crystals.
How can the immune system's activation by vaccines lead to autoimmunity?
Vaccines can activate T cells that may cross-react with self-tissues.
What is observed in the X-ray during Stage I of Paget's disease?
Cortical thickening and coarse trabeculations.
What is the defining feature of Churg Strauss Syndrome?
Eosinophilic inflammation.
What symptom is commonly experienced in the morning by osteoarthritis patients?
Stiffness.
What demographic is primarily affected by giant cell arteritis?
Older population.
What laboratory finding is commonly positive in Systemic Lupus?
Positive ANA (Antinuclear Antibody).
What can result from the inflammation caused by vasculitis?
Narrowing, blockage, aneurysm, or rupture of blood vessels.
What strategies can be employed to mitigate risks associated with NSAID use?
Using the lowest effective dose, co-prescribing gastroprotective agents, and regular monitoring of renal function.
How does the onset of symptoms typically differ between monoarticular and polyarticular arthritis?
Monoarticular arthritis often has sudden onset, while polyarticular arthritis may have a gradual onset.
What relieves the patient's shoulder pain?
Rest and NSAIDs.
How does Etanercept affect TNF alpha?
It binds to TNF alpha, preventing it from interacting with its natural receptors.
What is the mechanism of action of azathioprine?
Azathioprine is a prodrug that gets converted to 6-mercaptopurine, which inhibits purine synthesis, leading to decreased lymphocyte proliferation.
What are common skin manifestations in certain clinical conditions?
Plaques on the cheek and nose.
What are the benefits of COX-2 selective NSAIDs?
They provide anti-inflammatory effects with potentially fewer gastrointestinal side effects.
How do calcineurin inhibitors like cyclosporine work?
Calcineurin inhibitors block the activation of T cells by inhibiting the phosphatase activity of calcineurin, which is necessary for T cell activation.
What lab evaluations are used to diagnose SLE?
CBC, chemistries, urine analysis, ANA, dsDNA, ENA, Sjogren’s Abs, phospholipid Abs, and anti-C1q.
What are some contraindications for using biological agents?
Multiple Sclerosis (MS), optic neuritis, congestive heart failure (CHF).
What imaging findings are characteristic of osteoarthritis?
Osteophytes on X-ray and narrowing of joint space.
What is the significance of ANA in SLE diagnosis?
It is sensitive but not specific to SLE.
What is the 'treat-to-target' approach for RA?
Adjusting therapies to achieve specific, measurable goals like remission or low disease activity.
Which genetic markers are associated with osteoarthritis?
HLA DR4 and HLA DR1.
What treatment is used if a patient does not tolerate steroids?
Methotrexate.
What are common symptoms experienced by patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
Pain at rest, limitation of motion, morning stiffness, fatigue.
What is the role of steroids in rheumatoid arthritis treatment?
Steroids can be used as a bridge, but they reduce long-term life expectancy.
What is a major adverse effect of Pegloticase?
Anaphylactic reactions.
What are CCP antibodies and their relevance in RA diagnosis?
CCP antibodies (ACVPA or ACA) are used in the diagnosis of RA.
What is the role of Rheumatoid Factor (RF) in RA?
RF is an autoantibody that targets the Fc region of IgG, forming immune complexes that contribute to RA pathogenesis.
What laboratory finding is commonly elevated in polymyositis?
Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels.
What type of arthritis is characterized by gradually worsening knee pain over three years?
Osteoarthritis (OA).
What is the typical age group for osteoarthritis onset?
Usually over 50 years old.
What are some minor symptoms of Systemic Lupus?
Skin rash, arthritis, and minor chest pain.
What is polyarticular arthritis?
Arthritis that affects multiple joints.
What type of pain is the patient experiencing in his right shoulder?
Localized, sharp pain that worsens with overhead activities or lying on the affected side.
What cells migrate to combat pathogens?
Neutrophils and macrophages.
What laboratory findings are indicative of rheumatoid arthritis?
Elevated ESR and CRP, positive rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-CCP antibodies.
What is the significance of ETA protein in rheumatoid arthritis?
ETA protein is a marker used in assessing disease activity.
What is the role of synovial fluid in rheumatoid arthritis?
Synovial fluid analysis helps in evaluating disease activity.
How do NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes?
By blocking the activity of COX enzymes, which reduces the synthesis of prostaglandins.
What is the impact of NSAIDs on prostaglandin synthesis?
They decrease prostaglandin synthesis, leading to anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects.
What is the role of macrophages and dendritic cells in the innate immune response?
They are the first to detect pathogens and can travel to present antigens.
What happens to complement levels during SLE disease activity?
Complement levels (e.g., C3, C4) are often low due to consumption.
What is a common risk associated with NSAIDs in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) treatment?
Heart and renal risks; they do not prevent progression of RA.
What type of crystals are found in joint aspiration for gout?
Needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals with negative birefringence.
What are the therapeutic indications for tacrolimus?
Tacrolimus is indicated for organ transplantation and severe autoimmune diseases.
What does a CBC evaluate in SLE diagnosis?
Lymphocytes and platelets.
What should be treated before starting a biological agent?
Tuberculosis (TB).
What are the key symptoms of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) in the case presented?
Fatigue, joint pain, and a butterfly-shaped facial rash.
What type of drug is Infliximab?
A chimeric monoclonal antibody.
What should be monitored to assess remission?
X-rays.
Which gender is more commonly affected by gout?
Men, particularly before age 60.
What condition is associated with high uric acid levels?
Gout.
What treatments are used for skin involvement in SLE?
Antimalarials, steroids, DMARDs, and biologics.
What is citrullination in the context of RA?
A post-translational modification where arginine is converted to citrulline, leading to targeting of citrullinated proteins by the immune system.
What is the primary symptom of polymyositis?
Progressive muscle weakness, particularly in the shoulders and hips.
What is the primary action of Teriparatide?
Agonist at PTH1R, stimulating bone growth.
What are cDMARDs and their effect on immune factors?
cDMARDs like anti-malarial and sulfasalazine do not reduce immune factors.
How do soft tissue disorders present?
Without redness, swelling, or warmth.
What symptoms are associated with arthritis?
Swelling, warmth, redness, and pain.
What is platybasia in the context of Paget disease?
Flattening of the skull.
How does Paget disease affect blood flow?
Blood is shunted from the internal carotid to the bones rather than the brain.
What reflex is linked to S1?
Ankle jerk.
What is the function of C3a in the inflammatory response?
C3a functions as a chemoattractant, recruiting immune cells such as eosinophils and basophils to the site of infection or inflammation.
What are the two types of loading that can lead to osteoarthritis?
Excessive load on a normal joint or normal load on a defective joint.
What should be monitored when using NSAIDs for pain management?
Monitoring for adverse events such as gastrointestinal bleeding, renal impairment, and cardiovascular risks.
What are biologic DMARDs used for?
To help prevent and treat lupus nephritis (LN).
What type of process is involved in osteoarthritis?
An inflammatory process.
How does CD40 ligand affect B cells?
It restores proliferation and access to follicles.
What features are looked for in a renal biopsy?
Proliferative changes, inflammation, and signs of chronicity.
How are CD4+ T cells activated?
When antigen-presenting cells (APCs) present an antigen on MHC class II molecules to the T cell receptor (TCR) on CD4+ T cells, along with co-stimulatory signals.
How can drug-induced lupus be distinguished from regular lupus?
By the presence of Histone Ab and Phospholipid Ab.
What medications are commonly associated with drug-induced lupus?
Hydralazine, procainamide, quinidine, chlorpromazine, HMG CoA inhibitors, and isoniazid.
What are common symptoms associated with osteoarthritis?
Pain with use, stiffness, and range of motion issues.
What is cobble stoning in the context of clinical manifestations?
A specific appearance related to certain conditions.
What are the renal manifestations associated with certain diseases?
Hypercalciuria and hypercalcemia.
What is a key pathological feature of Osteoarthritis (OA)?
Minimal inflammation.
What is an immunological criterion for SLE?
Presence of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA).
What enzyme catalyzes the committed step in purine de novo synthesis?
AmidoPRT.
What antibodies are associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Anti-citrullinated protein antibody (ACPA).
What is a common gender-specific difference in osteoarthritis (OA)?
Women are more likely to develop OA, especially in the knees and hands, and experience more severe symptoms post-menopause.
At what age do women typically experience Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) compared to men?
Women often experience RA at an earlier age during their childbearing years.
What is the mechanism of action of Colchicine?
It binds to tubulin, inhibits phagocytosis, disrupts NLRP3 inflammasome activity, and lowers IL-1B release.
What is the next treatment option if methotrexate is not tolerated?
TNF-alpha inhibitor.
What is Eburnation in the context of Osteoarthritis?
Eburnation refers to the narrowing of joint space from reactive bone in areas of cartilage loss.
What conditions does Golimumab NOT treat?
Psoriasis.
What syndrome is associated with decreased HGPRT?
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
What is a notable gender-specific issue in osteoarthritis (OA) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
RA has a higher prevalence in females compared to males.
In which condition should Probenecid be avoided?
In patients with urolithiasis.
What infections should be ruled out when diagnosing inflammatory diseases?
HIV and hepatitis.
How do antibodies participate in the inflammatory response?
Antibodies bind to antigens on pathogens, marking them for destruction (opsonization), neutralizing toxins, and activating the complement system, which enhances inflammation.
What is the age of the patient presenting with shoulder pain?
55 years old.
What are some major symptoms of Systemic Lupus?
Organ involvement, psychosis, and bleeding problems.
Why is it important to individualize NSAID therapy?
Individualizing therapy ensures optimal pain relief while minimizing adverse effects based on patient-specific factors.
What prominent feature is seen in Stage III of Paget's disease?
Prominent irregular basophilic cement lines.
What are the initial events leading to an inflammatory response?
What is a common complication of large vessel vasculitis?
Aneurysm formation.
When should a renal biopsy be performed?
If there is glomerular hematuria, cellular casts, persistent proteinuria, or unexplained decrease in GFR.
What is a characteristic feature of small vessel vasculitis?
It often presents with skin manifestations and systemic symptoms.
What is the significance of early intervention in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) progression?
Intervening early, within less than 5 years of onset, is crucial for better disease management.
What are the common adverse effects of mycophenolate mofetil?
Common adverse effects include gastrointestinal disturbances, increased risk of infections, and bone marrow suppression.
Which condition is associated with fever as an extra-articular symptom?
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis, and vasculitis.
What is the final breakdown product of purines?
Uric acid.
What are the risks associated with COX-2 selective NSAIDs?
Increased risk of cardiovascular events.
What is the main feature of nucleic acid vaccines?
They are mRNA vaccines.
What is a serological criterion for SLE?
Anti-double-stranded DNA or anti-Smith antibodies.
What factors contribute to the development of rheumatoid arthritis?
Genetic predisposition with environmental trigger.
What are the adverse effects associated with voclosporin?
Adverse effects may include hypertension, nephrotoxicity, and increased risk of infections.
What is the mechanism of action of Pegloticase?
Uricase catalyzes the oxidation of uric acid to allantoin.
What is the process of cartilage injury in Osteoarthritis?
Cartilage injury leads to chondrocyte proliferation, hypertrophic chondrocyte formation, cartilage ossification, and osteophyte development.
What is the structure of Certolizumab?
A pegylated humanized antigen Fab fragment.
What is the role of Rheumatoid factor in diagnosing RA?
Rheumatoid factor can indicate RA but is not definitive as it shows up in many other diseases.
What conditions is Belimumab used to treat?
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and lupus nephritis.
What are JAK inhibitors used for?
They are last-resort drugs for various autoimmune conditions.
What are the three sources of rheumatic symptoms?
Soft tissue disorders, arthritis, and bone disorders.
What are some side effects of steroids in SLE treatment?
Diabetes, hypertension, and osteoporosis.
How do Fe or Cu affect NTP?
They prevent NTP from folding, which helps prevent calcium buildup.
What defines hyperuricemia?
Plasma urate levels above 6.8 mg/dl.
What is monoarticular arthritis?
Arthritis that affects a single joint.
What is the most effective treatment for medium vessel involvement?
Combination therapy with cyclophosphamide.
What type of arthritis is characterized by joint pain and swelling in the hands and wrists, bilaterally?
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA).
What is the classic triad of Henoch Schonlein Purpura?
Palpable purpura, arthritis, glomerulonephritis, and mesenteric ischemia.
What are some physical findings associated with Systemic Lupus?
Lung rub, fluid in abdomen, and edema in limbs.
What development occurs in the sclerotic phase of Paget's disease?
Transition from the mosaic pattern to a more sclerotic appearance.
What is the role of B cell agents in lupus treatment?
They help prevent and treat lupus nephritis.
In which conditions are glucocorticoids indicated as bridging therapy?
Conditions like giant cell arteritis and polymyalgia rheumatica.
What is involved in the process of assessing disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis?
Counting the number of affected joints.
Which cells are part of the innate immune system?
Macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, natural killer (NK) cells, eosinophils, basophils.
What is another diagnostic criterion for SLE?
Discoid rash.
What are the risks associated with opioid use?
Abuse and death risks.
What are PRRs and PAMPS in the context of the innate immune system?
PRRs (Pattern Recognition Receptors) bind to PAMPS (Pathogen-Associated Molecular Patterns) to detect pathogens.
What is a key pathological feature of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
Chronic inflammation.
What are the risks of steroid joint injections?
Flare, irritation, infection, bleeding, hypopigmentation, and diabetes flare.
What is a neurological criterion for SLE?
Seizures or psychosis.
What type of crystals are found in joint aspiration for pseudogout?
Rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals with positive birefringence.
What imaging finding may indicate hilar lymphadenopathy?
Found incidentally on chest x-ray.
What hormonal changes occur in women after the age of 50 that are related to OA?
Hormonal changes after 50 can contribute to the development of OA in women.
What laboratory findings are indicative of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Positive ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies, anemia, and mild proteinuria.
What validated assessments are used in the 'treat-to-target' approach?
DAS28, CDAI, or SDAI scores.
What is a notable symptom of scleroderma?
Progressive tightening of the skin on hands and face.
How does smoking influence the risk of developing RA?
Smoking increases risk through higher levels of DNA methylation and induces peptidyl deaminase in alveolar macrophages.
What is a complication of Adult onset Still’s Disease?
Hepatic necrosis.
How long should surgery be delayed after a joint injection?
3 weeks.
What are the serum uric acid levels typically like in pseudogout?
Usually normal or not elevated.
What is a characteristic symptom of Felty’s Syndrome?
Splenomegaly.
What effect does NTP have on pyrophosphate production?
NTP increases the production of pyrophosphate.
What is the mechanism of action of Calcitonin?
Inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption.
What are common triggers for Systemic Lupus?
UV light and smoking.
What are the manifestations of acute arthritis in gout?
Dense inflammatory infiltrate and long slender needle-shaped urate crystals.
What is the hallmark of Stage III of Paget's disease?
Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone.
What are the three categories of vessel size in vasculitis?
Large vessel, medium vessel, and small vessel vasculitis.
What condition should be looked for in patients with giant cell arteritis?
Eye conditions.
What are some common causes of polyarticular arthritis?
Rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, or psoriatic arthritis.
What is the gender ratio for the incidence of Systemic Lupus?
9:1 female to male.
What are the anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids?
Glucocorticoids reduce inflammation and suppress the immune response.
Which scoring system is considered the best for assessing rheumatoid arthritis?
The ACR (American College of Rheumatology) scoring system.
What is molecular mimicry in the context of autoimmune diseases?
It refers to the similarity between foreign antigens and self-antigens, which can lead to autoimmune responses, as seen in GBS and Schwann cells.
What are examples of non-selective NSAIDs?
Ibuprofen, naproxen, and diclofenac.
What are some extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis?
Skin nodules, vasculitis, dry eyes, lung disease, cardiovascular disease, anemia, neuropathy, kidney issues.
What eye involvement can occur in certain clinical conditions?
Eye involvement can occur.
What are the most important pro-inflammatory cytokines in the innate immune response?
IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha.
What type of skin rash is characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus?
Malar rash.
What is the de novo synthesis pathway for purines?
Making purines from scratch, with glutamine as a precursor for adenine and guanine biosynthesis.
Why is it important to differentiate between non-selective and COX-2 selective NSAIDs?
To tailor treatment based on benefits and risks for rheumatological diseases.
What is the mechanism of action of mycophenolate mofetil?
Mycophenolate mofetil inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, leading to decreased lymphocyte proliferation.
What effect does high de novo activity have on uric acid concentration?
It increases purine turnover, resulting in higher uric acid concentration.
What role do collagenases play in Osteoarthritis?
Collagenases MMP-1,3,9,14 play the most important role in OA.
What are the main adverse effects (AEs) associated with Romosozumab?
Myocardial infarction (MI), stroke, and cardiovascular death.
How do CPPD crystals appear under polarized light microscopy?
They exhibit positive birefringence.
What is Allopurinol used for?
It is used for recurrent gout and hyperuricemia.
What laboratory studies might be appropriate based on findings of a rheumatic disease?
Blood tests for inflammatory markers, autoantibodies, and imaging studies like X-rays or MRIs.
What is the gender ratio for rheumatoid arthritis prevalence?
Female to male ratio is 3:1.
What role does magnesium (Mg) play in the reaction of ATP to AMP?
Mg is needed for the reaction via the enzyme NTP.
What happens with decreased xanthine dehydrogenase?
High levels of xanthine in urinary excretion, leading to xanthinuria.
What are the main uses of Alendronate?
Osteoporosis and Paget’s disease.
What are common adverse effects of Alendronate?
Osteonecrosis of the jaw and esophagitis.
What is the significance of epitope spreading in vaccine-mediated autoimmunity?
It refers to the process where an immune response to a vaccine leads to the recognition of additional self-antigens.
What defines Stage II of Paget's disease?
Mixed osteolytic-osteoblastic phase with osteoclasts eroding bone and deposits of osteoid.
What are the therapeutic indications of NSAIDs in rheumatological diseases?
NSAIDs are used for pain management and to reduce inflammation in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis.
What is central tolerance in the immune system?
The process by which self-reactive B cells and T cells are eliminated to prevent autoimmunity.
What is the duration of stiffness in rheumatoid arthritis as described in the vignette?
More than an hour.
How long has the patient been experiencing shoulder pain?
For the past two weeks (acute).
What role do TH1 cells play in the immune response against Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
They secrete IFN-γ, activating macrophages to kill intracellular bacteria.
What is the primary function of the innate immune system?
Provides the first line of defense with nonspecific responses, including barriers and phagocytic cells.
What types of barriers are included in the innate immune system?
Skin and mucous membranes.
What are the indications for vaccination in autoimmune patients?
Increased risk due to autoimmune disease and medications like glucocorticoids, DMARDs, and biologics.
What are the therapeutic indications for cyclophosphamide?
Cyclophosphamide is used for severe autoimmune diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus and vasculitis.
What are some non-pharmacologic therapies for osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?
Social support, education, assistive devices, weight reduction, thermal modalities, muscle strengthening.
What is a depleting agent mentioned for treatment?
Rituximab.
What are recombinant protein vaccines composed of?
Select antigens that attach to host cells or virulence, inducing neutralizing and/or opsonizing Ig.
What is a characteristic of live attenuated vaccines?
Microbes are cultured to lose the ability to cause disease but can still grow in the host.
What is a histological hallmark of certain granulomatous diseases?
Noncaseating epithelioid granuloma.
Which gender is more affected by Osteoarthritis (OA)?
Females are more affected than males.
What are the therapeutic uses of vaccines?
To provide immunity against specific diseases, especially in at-risk populations.
What is the first-line treatment for certain inflammatory conditions?
Steroids (moderate dose).
What is a key histological feature of rheumatoid arthritis?
Cellular infiltration of synovium (no osteophytes).
What is monitored in SLE management?
CBC, CMP, UA, UPCR, C3 and C4 levels, dsDNA levels, and disease activity indexes.
What are the indications for surgery in patients with symptomatic OA and RA?
Persistent pain despite treatment and physical therapy, loss of joint function, or fracture.
What phenomenon is associated with scleroderma?
Raynaud's phenomenon.
What are the adverse effects of Denosumab?
Risk of infections, jaw issues, hypocalcemia, and hypophosphatemia.
What condition is Rasburicase primarily used for?
Tumor lysis syndrome.
Which inflammatory markers are used in the diagnostic testing for RA?
ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) and C-RP (C-Reactive Protein) are used.
What are the adverse effects associated with Teriparatide?
Hypercalcemia and osteosarcoma.
What should be avoided when using hydroxychloroquine?
Avoid hydroxychloroquine with retinal disease and low G6PD.
What is the shape and characteristic of MSU crystals in gout?
Needle-shaped and exhibit negative birefringence under polarized light microscopy.
What findings were observed in the X-rays of the patient with osteoarthritis?
Joint space narrowing and osteophyte formation.
What can result from high output cardiac failure in Paget disease?
Increased cardiac input leads to cardiac failure.
What is a common cause of monoarticular arthritis?
Injury or infection in one joint.
What is the physical presentation of a positive Trendelenburg sign?
Dropped pelvis on the normal side and trunk bending towards the involved side.
What type of inflammation is characteristic of giant cell arteritis?
Transmural inflammation.
What happens when there are defects in tolerance mechanisms?
It permits expansion of B and T cells, potentially leading to autoimmunity.
How does medium vessel vasculitis typically affect the body?
It can cause ischemia and organ damage due to blockage.
What physical examination finding is noted in the patient?
Tenderness over the subacromial bursa without significant swelling or redness.
What is one of the diagnostic criteria for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Malar rash (butterfly rash).
What is the primary symptom of gout in the presented case?
Sudden, severe pain in the right big toe.
What physical findings may indicate osteoarthritis?
Bony hypertrophy and bony tenderness in weight-bearing areas.
What is the purpose of lab tests in the context of osteoarthritis?
To look for medication side effects.
What should be done with cDMARDs before surgery?
They should be continued through the surgery.
Which HLA is associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis?
HLA-DR4.
In which gender is rheumatoid arthritis (RA) more common?
Women, particularly during childbearing years.
What genetic factor increases susceptibility to rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
Certain HLA-DRB1 alleles (shared epitope).
What is plaque psoriasis?
A chronic autoimmune skin condition characterized by red, scaly patches.
What is unique about Adalimumab?
It is a fully humanized anti-TNF alpha IgG1.
What are the two sets of criteria used for diagnosing Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
There are two sets of diagnostic criteria for RA, but specific details are not provided.
What is the female-to-male ratio for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
About 9:1.
What is secondary gout caused by?
Increased nucleic acid turnover due to increased amidoPRT.
What are Heberden’s nodes?
Osteophytes in distal interphalangeal joints.
What is the primary use of Anakinra?
To treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
What conditions is Tofacitinib used to treat?
Psoriatic arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis (RA), and ankylosing spondylitis.
What causes calcium deposition in joints?
Inflammation in joint chondrocytes.
What condition is Baricitinib primarily used for?
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
What effect does hyperexpression of CD40 ligand have in SLE?
It leads to increased T cell activation.
What are the adverse effects associated with Zoledronic acid?
Nephrotoxicity and seizures, but no esophagitis.
How is cholecalciferol converted to calcidiol?
By the enzyme 25-hydroxylase in the liver.
What are some key inflammatory mediators involved in the inflammatory response?
Histamine, cytokines (e.g., IL-1, IL-6, TNF-α), prostaglandins, leukotrienes, complement proteins, chemokines.
What is Signal 1 of B cell activation?
Antigen presentation.
What does a positive Trendelenburg sign indicate?
Hip abductor weakness.
How does C5a contribute to the inflammatory response?
C5a acts as a potent chemoattractant, attracting neutrophils, monocytes, and other phagocytes to the site of infection, enhancing the inflammatory response.
Is there a genetic component to osteoarthritis?
Yes, there are genetic dispositions.
Which cells are the primary producers of interferon-gamma (IFN-γ)?
Natural killer (NK) cells and TH1 (T-helper 1) cells.
What is the pain rating given by the patient?
6 out of 10.
What is the function of Etanercept in rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
It acts as a decoy receptor for tumor necrosis factor (TNF), reducing inflammation.
What is the goal of treatment after a renal biopsy?
To decrease proteinuria and reduce steroid dosage.
What are the radiologic changes associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
Eroded joints with disease progression.
What role does complement play in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Complement activation contributes to inflammation and tissue damage in SLE.
What type of photosensitivity is a criterion for SLE?
Photosensitivity (skin rash as a result of unusual reaction to sunlight).
What type of vaccine is composed of bacterial capsule antigens?
Capsular polysaccharides vaccines.
What are the risks associated with non-selective NSAIDs?
Higher risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and ulcers.
What is extravasation in the context of the immune response?
The process of moving leukocytes from blood to tissue, involving rolling, activation, adhesion, and transendothelial migration.
Which extra-articular symptom is associated with Sjögren’s syndrome?
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca.
What is a common progression pattern of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
Do well for 2 years, but then get worse after this.
In which gender is osteoarthritis more prevalent?
More common in females.
What is the mechanism of action of Romosozumab?
Blocks sclerostin, increases bone formation, and decreases bone resorption.
What shape do CPPD crystals have?
Rhomboid-shaped.
What are contraindications for vaccination?
Severe allergic reactions to vaccine components or immunocompromised states in certain vaccine types.
What should Pegloticase not be used with?
Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (XOIs) or uricosurics.
What is the mechanism of action of Belimumab?
It blocks BlyS and inhibits the survival of B cells.
Do NSAIDs prevent the progression of rheumatoid arthritis?
No, NSAIDs do NOT prevent progression of RA.
What treatment is recommended for Adult onset Still’s Disease?
IL-1 inhibitor (daily shot then monthly).
What are the steroid dosage guidelines for SLE?
Low doses for minor involvement, moderate doses for moderate involvement, and high doses for severe presentations.
Does Febuxostat require dosing adjustments?
No dosing adjustment is required.
What are the adverse effects associated with Febuxostat?
Hypersensitivity reactions, hepatotoxicity, and arthralgia.
What is the mechanism of action of Probenecid?
It inhibits the resorption of uric acid, increasing renal elimination.
Where is vitamin D largely synthesized?
In the skin.
What is a common symptom of pseudogout?
Acute onset of pain and swelling in the knee.
What is the primary function of the adaptive immune system?
Provides a specific response to pathogens via lymphocytes (B and T cells) and has memory capabilities for stronger responses upon re-exposure.
What is the mechanism of action of Etanercept?
It acts as a decoy TNF alpha receptor.
What is the current approach to treatment?
Treat to target (clinical remission) and early use of cDMARDs and biologic agents.
What are some adverse effects of vaccination?
Possible allergic reactions, mild fever, or local inflammation at the injection site.
What role do sex hormones play in RA?
Women are more likely to get RA due to the influence of sex hormones.
What are common co-morbid conditions to control?
Osteoporosis, cardiovascular disease, and vaccination status.
What type of drug is Denosumab?
A monoclonal antibody targeting RANKL.
What is often associated with gout?
Elevated serum uric acid levels.
What is the role of renal biopsy in lupus nephritis?
To guide therapy.
What is Febuxostat indicated for?
Recurrent gout and hyperuricemia, but not for asymptomatic treatment.
What is the mechanism of action of Etidronate?
Inhibits ATP-dependent intracellular enzymes and promotes osteoclast apoptosis.
What imaging technique is utilized in the evaluation of RA?
X-ray evaluation is used in the diagnosis of RA.
What is the immunopathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
SLE is an autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks nuclear antigens, causing widespread inflammation and organ damage.
What are the potential issues associated with DMARDs?
DMARDs can cause lung, liver, and bone marrow issues.
What conditions does Zoledronic acid treat?
Osteoporosis, Paget’s disease, osteolytic bone metastases of solid tumors, and multiple myeloma.
What is T cell dependent B cell activation?
A process where T cells help activate B cells, leading to isotype switching and somatic hypermutation.
How does opsonization and complement activation lead to inflammation?
Both processes enhance the immune response and promote inflammation.
What are the routine labs included in arthritis screening?
CBC, chemistry (lytes), glucose, liver function test, CPK, uric acid, urinalysis.
What type of hypersensitivity is involved in RA?
Type III hypersensitivity, where immune complexes deposit in tissues and trigger inflammation.
What conditions is Upadacitinib used to treat?
Psoriatic arthritis, RA, ankylosing spondylitis, and spondylarthritis.
What is the difference between calcium pyrophosphate and calcium hydroxyapatite?
Calcium hydroxyapatite is small and hexagonal, found in bone and teeth, while calcium pyrophosphate is larger and rod-shaped.
What is the primary use of Raloxifene?
Reduces bone resorption and breast cancer risk.
What are the main uses of Conjugated estrogens/Bazedoxifene?
Treats osteoporosis and vasomotor symptoms.
What is the role of the kidney in vitamin D metabolism?
It converts calcidiol to the active form of vitamin D by 1alpha-hydroxylase, with PTH increasing activity.
How do CD4+ T cells contribute to the pathogenesis of RA?
They activate macrophages and B cells, perpetuating inflammation.
When should vaccines ideally be administered in relation to immunosuppressive therapy?
Before initiating immunosuppressive therapy.
Which conditions can Tocilizumab treat?
Psoriatic arthritis, RA, and giant cell arteritis.
What conditions is Secukinumab indicated for?
Psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis.
What are the adverse effects of Calcitonin?
Malignancy and hypocalcemia.
What does the PQRST method stand for in symptom description?
Pattern, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Timing.
What is a significant risk associated with Rituximab?
Embryo-fetal toxicity.
What do TNF inhibitors target?
They target and inhibit tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α), a key inflammatory cytokine in RA.
What is the role of B cells in rheumatoid arthritis?
They produce autoantibodies that contribute to immune complex formation and further inflammation.
What should be controlled in women’s health issues before pregnancy?
The disease.
What DMARDs are used for minor disease in SLE?
Hydroxychloroquine, methotrexate, Leflunomide, and Belimumab.
What is a common symptom of bone disorders?
Localized pain and night pain.
What is unique about vitamin D compared to other vitamins?
It is the only vitamin that the body can make on its own.
What happens to 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin?
It is stored in the skin.
What are some consequences of vitamin D deficiency?
Rickets (Genu Varum), poor absorption of calcium, and osteomalacia.
What type of virus is associated with a decrease in efficacy over time?
Adenovirus.
What are acute phase reactants used in routine arthritis screening?
ESR and C-RP.
What antibodies are commonly produced in SLE?
Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs), anti-DNA antibodies, and anti-RNA antibodies.
What is the mechanism of action of Abatacept?
It inhibits T cell activation by binding to CD80/86.
What is the first step in vitamin D synthesis?
Cholesterol in the liver is converted to 7-dehydrocholesterol by cholesterol dehydrogenase.
What are tsDMARDs?
Targeted synthetic DMARDs that target specific molecules within immune cells, e.g., JAK inhibitors like tofacitinib.
What drives the immunopathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
An autoimmune reaction leading to chronic inflammation in joints, driven by autoreactive T cells and autoantibodies.
When should live vaccines be administered for patients on immunosuppressive therapy?
Before starting therapy or when at the lowest effective dose.
What is Ixekizumab used to treat?
Psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis.
Which DMARD lasts the longest in terms of treatment longevity?
Methotrexate.
What is the difference between biologics and DMARDs?
DMARDs modify disease progression, while biologics target specific immune components.
What are the main functions of antibodies?
Neutralization, opsonization, ADCC, and complement activation.
What role does TNF play in rheumatoid arthritis?
It promotes inflammation, leading to joint damage.
What is the recommendation for COVID-19 vaccines for patients with autoimmune diseases?
Strongly recommended and safe.
What DMARDs are used for major disease in SLE?
Azathioprine, MMF, and cytotoxic agents.
What are examples of biologics used in rheumatoid arthritis?
IL-1 inhibitors and TNF inhibitors.
What are csDMARDs?
Conventional synthetic DMARDs like methotrexate, sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.
What are examples of TNF inhibitors?
Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab.
What syndrome is linked to the swine flu vaccine from 1976?
Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS).
What is a unique adverse effect of Ibandronate?
Jaw-related issues, but no esophagitis.
What are the adverse effects of Probenecid?
Hemolytic anemia and increased risk in G6PD deficiency.
What are the two career decisions B cells can make after activation?
To become plasma cells or memory cells.
What is the role of the complement system in the immune response?
It enhances the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear pathogens through opsonization, cell lysis, and inflammation.
What is the current recommendation for inactivated vaccines for patients with autoimmune diseases?
Generally safe and recommended.
What does ANA stand for in routine arthritis screening?
Antinuclear antibodies.
What are the adverse effects of Raloxifene?
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism (PE), and stroke.
What are the adverse effects of Conjugated estrogens/Bazedoxifene?
Endometrial cancer, DVT, stroke, and dementia.
What triggers the activation of the complement system?
The classical pathway (antibody binding), alternative pathway (pathogen surface), or lectin pathway (mannose-binding lectin).
Is the risk of Guillain-Barré Syndrome higher from the flu or the flu vaccine?
More likely to get GBS from the flu than from the flu vaccine.
Which test is used to detect rheumatoid arthritis?
Rheumatoid factor.
What antigen does Rituximab bind to?
The CD20 antigen on B lymphocytes.
What is the action of Apremilast?
It is a PDE4 inhibitor that increases cAMP.
What do IL-6 inhibitors target?
They target interleukin-6 (IL-6), another key component in the immune response.
What is the risk associated with the MMR vaccine?
Thrombocytopenia.
What does ACA stand for in arthritis screening tests?
Anti-citrullinated protein antibodies.
Which vaccines should be avoided in patients on significant immunosuppression?
Live attenuated vaccines (e.g., MMR, varicella).
What antibodies are associated with Sjogren's syndrome?
Sjogren’s Abs.