What happens during DNA replication when intercalating agents are present?
Click to see answer
Daughter strands may contain single-nucleotide additions and/or deletions, resulting in frameshifts.
Click to see question
What happens during DNA replication when intercalating agents are present?
Daughter strands may contain single-nucleotide additions and/or deletions, resulting in frameshifts.
What is a chromosomal rearrangement?
A change in the structure of chromosomes that can affect gene expression.
What is depurination?
The loss of a purine base (adenine or guanine) from DNA.
What effect does methylation have on activator proteins?
Methylation inhibits the binding of an activator protein.
What protein is activated in the pathway that leads to transcriptional activation of a target gene?
CREB protein.
What does CREB stand for?
cAMP response element-binding.
What types of DNA damage can NER repair?
Thymine dimers, chemically modified bases, missing bases, and some types of crosslinks.
In which organisms is NER found?
In all eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
What is oxidative stress?
An imbalance between the production of ROS and an organism’s ability to break them down.
How does direct repair differ from excision repair?
Direct repair fixes specific types of damage without removing nucleotides, while excision repair removes damaged sections before repairing.
What happens if the DNA repair system fails after deamination?
A C-G to A-T mutation will result during subsequent rounds of DNA replication.
What is the focus of the content provided?
Gene Mutation and DNA Repair.
What is a position effect?
Alteration of gene expression due to a gene's new location.
How can mutations affect genes?
They can affect the molecular and phenotypic expression of genes.
What is TFIID's role in transcription?
It is recruited by the activator/coactivator complex to the core promoter.
What are the three states of DNA methylation on cytosine bases?
Unmethylated, hemimethylated, and fully methylated.
What happens when CREB is phosphorylated?
It binds to DNA and stimulates transcription.
What is the consensus sequence recognized by the CREB protein?
5’ - TGACGTCA - 3’ and 3’ – ACTGCAGT - 5’.
What is the difference between spontaneous and induced mutations?
Spontaneous mutations occur naturally, while induced mutations are caused by external factors.
What do regulatory transcription factors do?
They regulate the rate of transcription of target genes.
Why are DNA repair systems vital to organisms?
Because most mutations are deleterious.
What is the primary function of base excision repair (BER)?
To remove a damaged base from DNA.
How long are CpG islands typically?
1,000 to 2,000 nucleotides long.
What can mutations in the coding sequence of a protein-encoding gene affect?
They can have various effects on the polypeptide.
How can the environment influence mutations?
It can affect whether a given mutation is deleterious or beneficial.
How are steroid hormones transported in the body?
Secreted into the bloodstream.
What do regulatory transcription factors recognize?
Cis regulatory elements located near the core promoter.
Which enzyme is responsible for DNA methylation?
DNA methyltransferase.
What is a point mutation?
A change in a single base pair.
What can DNA repair enzymes recognize in DNA?
Uracil as an inappropriate base.
What is a characteristic of ionizing radiation?
It has short wavelength and high energy.
What does deamination of cytosine result in?
The formation of uracil, which can lead to mutations if not repaired.
What is the publisher of the material?
McGraw Hill.
What is one mechanism of transcriptional silencing?
Transcriptional silencing via methylation.
What are base analogs?
Substances that become incorporated into daughter strands during DNA replication.
What is the effect of regulatory sequences on gene expression?
Regulatory sequences can cause gene A to show the expression pattern of gene B.
What is the role of general transcription factors?
They are required for the binding of RNA polymerase to the core promoter and its progression to the elongation stage.
What can a tautomeric shift in 5-bromouracil result in?
Pairing with guanine.
What is another example of a DNA sequence mutation provided?
5’ AACGCTAGATC 3’ changing to 5’ AAC AGTC GCTAGATC 3’.
What type of proteins can be involved with intergenic suppressors?
Multimeric proteins.
What are CpG islands?
Regions with a high concentration of phosphate-linked cytosine-guanine pairs found near many gene promoters in vertebrates and plants.
What is the process of deamination of cytosine?
It is the conversion of cytosine into uracil by the removal of an amine group.
What phase of transcription does RNA polymerase proceed to after activation?
The elongation phase.
What happens during replication over an apurinic site?
DNA polymerase may insert an incorrect base, leading to mutations.
What are conditional mutations?
Mutations that affect the phenotype only under a defined set of conditions.
What is an example of a conditional mutation?
A temperature-sensitive mutation.
What is DNA methylation?
DNA methylation is the addition of a methyl group to the DNA molecule, typically at cytosine bases.
What role does cAMP play in cellular signaling?
Acts as a second messenger.
What phase of transcription is affected by the repressor protein?
The elongation phase.
How can mutations in a common pathway affect enzyme function?
A defect in one enzyme may be compensated for by a mutation that enhances another enzyme's function.
What is hemimethylated DNA?
DNA where only one strand is methylated.
What are regulatory transcription factors that respond to steroid hormones called?
Steroid receptors.
What are germ-line mutations?
Mutations that occur in gametes and are passed to half of the gametes in the next generation.
What is the ultimate action of a steroid hormone?
To affect gene transcription.
What is the methylation status of parental strands prior to replication?
Both parental strands are methylated.
What is depurination?
The removal of a purine (guanine or adenine) from DNA, forming an apurinic site.
What processes do glucocorticoids promote?
Glucose utilization, fat mobilization, and protein breakdown.
What is a common characteristic of xeroderma pigmentosum and Cockayne syndrome?
Increased sensitivity to sunlight and predisposition to skin cancer.
What are nonsense mutations?
Base substitutions that change a normal codon to a stop codon.
How do intercalating agents affect the DNA structure?
They distort the helical structure of DNA.
What is phosphorylated as a result of the interaction between the activator protein and mediator?
The carboxyl-terminal domain of RNA polymerase.
What type of molecules does ionizing radiation create?
Chemically reactive molecules termed free radicals.
What role does Methyl - CpG - binding protein play in chromatin structure?
It recruits other proteins that change the chromatin to a closed conformation.
What is nucleotide excision repair (NER)?
A general process for DNA repair that removes damaged DNA segments.
How does TFIID relate to transcriptional repression?
Transcriptional repression occurs via the inhibition of TFIID.
What is the main focus of DNA repair systems?
To fix damaged DNA and maintain genomic integrity.
Why are general transcription factors necessary?
They are necessary for basal transcription.
What are agents that alter the structure of DNA and cause mutations called?
Mutagens.
What is the response element recognized by the CREB protein called?
cAMP response element (CRE).
What is the role of nucleotide excision repair?
To remove bulky DNA adducts and repair UV-induced damage.
What do living cells contain to address DNA alterations?
Several DNA repair systems.
What happens to the methylation of strands immediately after replication?
The parental strand is methylated while the newly made daughter strand is not.
What are intragenic suppressors?
Suppressor mutations that occur within the same gene as the first mutation.
How do regulatory transcription factors typically interact with RNA polymerase?
Most regulatory transcription factors do not bind directly to RNA polymerase.
How do reactive oxygen species affect DNA?
They can alter DNA structure and cause mutations by damaging the DNA bases.
What happens after the abnormal DNA is removed in the repair process?
Normal DNA is synthesized.
What happens to some general transcription factors during transcriptional activation?
They are released.
What are two common reasons for position effects?
What is gene repression?
The process of turning off a gene to decrease its expression.
What is the effect of the activator/coactivator complex on transcription?
Transcription will be enhanced.
How is the CREB protein modulated?
By covalent modification, specifically phosphorylation.
What are the two types of mutations mentioned?
Addition and deletion of short sequences of DNA.
In which type of organisms is the molecular mechanism of NER better understood?
In prokaryotes.
What happens if proofreading by DNA polymerases fails?
The mismatch repair system corrects the error.
What do mismatch repair systems recognize and correct?
Base pair mismatches.
What are lethal mutations?
The most extreme type of deleterious mutations that result in death.
How do regulatory transcription factors influence transcription?
They influence the ability of RNA polymerase to begin transcription of a particular gene.
What are DNA double-strand breaks?
Breakages of chromosomes into pieces.
What do base modifiers do to nucleotides?
They covalently modify the structure of a nucleotide.
What does 8-oxoG pair with during replication?
Adenine.
What is the methylation status of CpG islands in housekeeping genes?
They are unmethylated.
What can mutations in the coding sequence of a gene affect?
The polypeptide produced by the gene.
What happens to steroid hormones after they are secreted?
They are taken up by cells that respond to the hormone.
What rare form can adenine and cytosine convert to?
The imino form.
How do base modifiers function as mutagens?
They covalently modify base structure or disrupt pairing by alkylating bases.
What is a base substitution?
A type of point mutation where one base pair is replaced by another.
What is a transition mutation?
A change of a pyrimidine (C, T) to another pyrimidine or a purine (A, G) to another purine.
What are the types of mutations?
Changes in chromosome structure, changes in chromosome number, and changes in DNA of a single gene.
What is an example of a small effector molecule that can bind to proteins?
Hormone.
What happens to transcription when the repressor protein is active?
Transcription is silenced.
What is an intergenic suppressor?
A mutation that compensates for a defect in one enzyme by increasing the function of a different enzyme in the same pathway.
What does unmethylated DNA indicate?
Cytosine bases are not methylated.
Can unphosphorylated CREB bind to DNA?
Yes, but it cannot activate RNA polymerase.
What are the three types of chemical changes that can cause spontaneous mutations?
What can the overaccumulation of ROS lead to?
Oxidative DNA damage.
What is depurination?
The loss of a purine base from DNA, which can lead to mutations.
What is guanine converted to in oxidative DNA damage?
7,8-dihydro-8-oxoguanine (8-oxoG).
What is deamination?
A chemical change that can cause spontaneous mutations.
What is a key feature of mismatch repair systems?
They are specific to the newly made strand.
What are the three common ways to modulate the function of regulatory transcription factors?
Which proteins are involved in the molecular mechanism of mismatch repair in E. coli?
MutL, MutH, and MutS.
What is the consequence of a mutation in a splice recognition sequence?
It may alter the ability of pre-mRNA to be properly spliced.
Which abnormal bases can be eliminated by the base excision repair system?
Uracil, 3-methyladenine, and 7-methylguanine.
What can some chemical mutagens do to nucleotide pairing?
They can disrupt appropriate pairing by alkylating bases within the DNA.
What are the potential consequences of DNA double-strand breaks?
Chromosomal rearrangements and deficiencies.
What are the two systems that can repair DNA double-strand breaks?
Homologous recombination repair (HRR) and nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ).
Which organisms have abundant DNA methylation?
Vertebrates and plants.
Which type of mutation is more common, transitions or transversions?
Transitions are more common than transversions.
What is the process of adding a methyl group to cytosine called?
Methylation of cytosine.
What is deamination of cytosine?
The removal of an amino group from the cytosine base.
What are examples of ionizing radiation?
X-rays and gamma rays.
What is gene activation?
The process of turning on a gene to increase its expression.
What is the result of activating the CREB protein?
Transcriptional activation of a target gene.
What is a base mismatch in DNA?
An abnormality where an incorrect base is added during DNA replication.
What rule does the DNA double helix structure obey?
The AT/GC rule of base pairing.
How are regulatory sequences characterized in terms of directionality?
Regulatory sequences are often bidirectional.
What is an example of intergenic suppressors?
Common pathway.
What specific sites does MutH recognize?
Hemimethylated GATC sites.
What are suppressor mutations?
Mutations that reverse the phenotypic effects of another mutation.
What is the common, stable form of thymine and guanine?
The keto form.
What is deamination?
The removal of an amino group from a nucleotide, which can result in base substitution mutations.
What is base excision repair primarily responsible for?
Repairing small, non-helix-distorting base lesions.
What is the primary function of the Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER) system in E. coli?
To remove damaged DNA segments.
What are chemical mutagens?
Substances that cause mutations through chemical reactions, such as certain pesticides or alkylating agents.
What happens to modified bases during DNA replication?
They do not pair with the appropriate nucleotides in the daughter strand.
What additional health issue is associated with Cockayne syndrome?
Early degeneration of the nervous system.
What is one of the three common interactions that communicate the effects of regulatory transcription factors?
Regulation via Mediator.
How often do mammalian cells lose purines?
Approximately 10,000 purines per 24 hours at 37 °C.
What types of DNA damage do the Uvr proteins help repair?
UV-induced damage and chemically damaged DNA.
What is a regulatory protein that increases the rate of transcription called?
An activator.
What role do methyl-CpG-binding proteins play in chromatin structure?
They recognize methylated sites and recruit other proteins that lead to chromatin compaction.
What is the consequence of closed chromatin on transcription?
Closed chromatin prevents transcription by making DNA inaccessible to the transcription machinery.
Which bases are not readily deaminated?
The other bases besides cytosine.
What are intercalating agents?
Agents that contain flat planar structures that intercalate into the DNA double helix.
What are some effects of ionizing radiation on DNA?
Base deletions, oxidized bases, single nicks in DNA strands, cross-linking, and chromosomal breaks.
How does DNA methylation affect transcription?
DNA methylation can repress transcription by preventing the binding of transcription factors to the DNA.
What enzyme can repair thymine dimers?
Photolyase.
What are Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS)?
Byproducts produced by aerobic organisms, including hydrogen peroxide, superoxide, and hydroxyl radical.
What is an example of a DNA sequence mutation provided?
5’ AACGC TAGA TC 3’ changing to 5’ AACGCTC 3’.
What are deleterious mutations?
Mutations that decrease the chances of survival.
What enzymes help block the buildup of Reactive Oxygen Species?
Superoxide dismutase and catalase.
What is a possible consequence of a mutation in a promoter?
It may increase or decrease the rate of transcription.
What role do antioxidants play in relation to ROS?
They help to block the buildup of Reactive Oxygen Species.
Why do silent mutations occur?
Due to the degeneracy of the genetic code.
What can oxidative stress lead to?
DNA damage and mutation.
How does the timing of a somatic mutation affect its impact?
The earlier the mutation occurs, the larger the patch of affected area.
What is a tautomeric shift?
A chemical change that can result in spontaneous mutations.
What are gonadocorticoids?
Hormones that include estrogen and testosterone.
Which four key proteins are involved in the NER system in E. coli?
UvrA, UvrB, UvrC, and UvrD.
What are somatic mutations?
Mutations that occur directly in a body cell that is not part of the germ-line.
How many different NER genes can defects in xeroderma pigmentosum involve?
Seven different NER genes.
Give examples of chemical mutagens that disrupt nucleotide pairing.
Nitrogen mustards and ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS).
What is a common cause of spontaneous mutations?
Errors in DNA replication.
What is the sequence that an activator binds to called?
An enhancer.
What is the sequence that a repressor binds to called?
A silencer.
What does the activator protein interact with during transcription?
Mediator.
How does ionizing radiation affect biological molecules?
It can penetrate deeply into them.
What type of interaction is involved in protein regulation?
Protein-protein interaction.
What is the consequence of the repressor protein's interaction with mediator?
RNA polymerase cannot proceed to the elongation phase of transcription.
What can 5-bromouracil be incorporated into instead of thymine?
DNA.
How can mutations be characterized based on their effects?
By their differential ability to survive.
What role do different proteins play in a common pathway?
They may function as enzymes that interact with each other.
What are the two types of animal cells classified by geneticists?
Germ-line cells and somatic cells.
How are mutagenic agents usually classified?
As chemical or physical mutagens.
What effect can mutations in the 5' UTR or 3' UTR have on mRNA?
They may alter the ability of mRNA to be translated or affect mRNA stability.
What is DNA methylation?
The covalent attachment of methyl groups to DNA.
What is the common, stable form of adenine and cytosine?
The amino form.
What are gene mutations?
Molecular changes in the DNA sequence of a gene.
What are frameshift mutations?
Mutations involving the addition or deletion of nucleotides that is not divisible by three.
Why are the Uvr proteins named as such?
Because they are involved in Ultra violet light repair of pyrimidine dimers.
How do changes in chromosome structure affect gene expression?
They can lead to alterations in gene regulation and expression levels.
Why are housekeeping genes used as reference genes in experiments?
Due to their stable and ubiquitous expression.
What is a transversion mutation?
A change of a pyrimidine to a purine or vice versa.
What is the effect of histone deacetylases (HDACs) on chromatin?
HDACs remove acetyl groups from histones, leading to a more compact chromatin structure.
Can you name examples of intercalating agents?
Acridine dyes and Proflavin.
What happens when a chromosomal breakpoint occurs within a gene?
It may affect the gene's function.
What is the role of the repressor protein in transcription?
It inhibits the binding of TFIID to the core promoter or inhibits its function.
What is an example of a base analog?
5-bromouracil, which is a thymine analog.
What triggers the activation of the CREB protein?
Cell-signaling molecules that increase cytoplasmic cAMP concentration.
What energy source does photolyase use for photoreactivation?
Visible light.
What is a tautomeric shift?
A temporary change in base structure.
What is Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER)?
A DNA repair mechanism that removes damaged DNA segments.
What role do transcription factors play in intergenic suppression?
They can be involved in the common pathway affected by mutations.
What do beneficial mutations do?
Enhance the survival or reproductive success of an organism.
What is a mutagen?
A substance that causes mutations in DNA.
What can cause DNA double-strand breaks?
Ionizing radiation, chemical mutagens, and reactive oxygen species (ROS).
Why are mutagens a concern in relation to future generations?
They can cause gene mutations that may have harmful effects.
What is a genetic mosaic?
An individual with somatic regions that are genotypically different from the rest of the body.
What are the three main types of chemical mutagens?
Base modifiers, intercalating agents, and base analogs.
What do R and Y represent in the GRE sequence?
R is a purine and Y is a pyrimidine.
What role do protein-protein interactions play in regulating transcription factors?
They allow transcription factors to interact with co-activators, co-repressors, or other transcription factors, modulating their ability to bind DNA and influence activity.
What is the effect of regulatory transcription factors binding to control elements?
It affects the transcription of an associated gene.
What enzymes complete the DNA repair process after the Uvr proteins have removed damaged segments?
DNA polymerase and ligase.
What is an example of covalent modification in proteins?
Phosphorylation.
Why is deamination of cytosine significant in genetics?
It can cause base-pair substitutions during DNA replication.
What role does the repressor protein play in transcription?
It interacts with mediator to prevent the phosphorylation of RNA polymerase.
What does cAMP activate?
Protein kinase A.
What are intergenic suppressors?
Mutations that occur in a different gene from the first mutation.
What are the two main types of DNA repair systems?
Direct repair and excision repair.
What are silent mutations?
Base substitutions that do not alter the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide.
What is depurination?
A type of chemical change that can lead to spontaneous mutations.
What is a characteristic of somatic mutations?
They result in patches of affected areas in the body.
What do GRE (Glucocorticoid Response Elements) function as?
Enhancers.
What do germ-line cells give rise to?
Gametes such as eggs and sperm.
What forms as a result of depurination?
An apurinic site.
What do DNA N-glycosylases do?
They recognize an abnormal base and cleave the bond between it and the sugar in DNA.
What are physical mutagens?
Agents that cause mutations through physical means, such as radiation (e.g., UV light, X-rays).
What typically happens when the first mutation causes an abnormality in protein structure?
The second mutation restores normal protein structure.
Is DNA methylation common in all eukaryotic species?
No, it is common in some but not all eukaryotic species.
What is a CpG island?
A region of DNA with a high frequency of CpG sites, often located near gene promoters.
How does methylation affect gene expression?
Methylation of CpG islands can silence gene expression by blocking the binding of activator proteins.
What percentage of DNA is typically methylated in mammals?
~ 2 to 7%.
What types of agents can be mutagens?
Chemical or physical agents.
What role does the activator/coactivator complex play in transcription?
It recruits TFIID to the core promoter and/or activates its function.
What are the two main types of transcription factors?
General transcription factors and regulatory transcription factors.
How does photolyase restore DNA to its original condition?
By splitting the dimers.
What ability do DNA polymerases have during replication?
A 3’ to 5’ proofreading ability to detect and fix base mismatches.
What is a key characteristic of MutH in mismatch repair systems?
It can distinguish between the parental strand and the daughter strand.
What type of bases does alkyltransferase repair?
Alkylated bases.
What does fully methylated DNA mean?
Both strands of DNA have methylated cytosine bases.
How does alkyltransferase repair alkylated bases?
By transferring the methyl or ethyl group to a cysteine side chain within the protein.
How can mutations in regulatory elements or operator sites affect a gene?
They may disrupt the ability of the gene to be properly regulated.
Where are steroid hormones produced?
By endocrine glands.
What type of enzymes are involved in base excision repair?
DNA N-glycosylases.
What is the first step in the DNA repair process?
An irregularity in DNA structure is detected.
What are germ-line mutations?
Mutations that occur directly in a sperm or egg cell, or in one of their precursor cells.
What is the stability of the covalent bond between deoxyribose and a purine base?
Somewhat unstable.
Why are the proteins named 'Mut'?
Because their absence leads to a much higher mutation rate than normal.
What are the sequences recognized by regulatory transcription factors called?
Control elements, regulatory elements, or regulatory sequences.
Why are GREs significant in gene regulation?
They are located near dozens of different genes, allowing the hormone to activate many genes.
What happens if the repair system for apurinic sites fails?
A mutation may result during subsequent rounds of DNA replication.
What happens when methyl groups are added to cytosine residues in CpG islands?
It can block the binding of activator proteins, preventing gene activation.
What are mutagens?
Agents that are known to alter DNA structure.
What are the two main concerns the public has about mutagens?
In which organisms are mismatch repair systems found?
In all species.
Which human diseases are associated with defects in NER?
Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) and Cockayne syndrome (CS).
What rare form can thymine and guanine convert to?
The enol form.
What are tautomeric shifts?
Temporary changes in the structure of a nucleotide base that can lead to mispairing during DNA replication.
What effect does nitrous acid have on nucleotides?
It replaces amino groups with keto groups, changing cytosine to uracil and adenine to hypoxanthine.
What type of mutation does the pairing of 8-oxoG with adenine cause?
A transversion mutation (GC base pair to TA base pair).
What type of genes are associated with CpG islands?
Housekeeping genes.
How can a mutation within the coding sequence of a gene alter a polypeptide’s structure?
It can change the amino acid sequence, potentially affecting the polypeptide's function.
What is the consequence of a frameshift mutation?
It shifts the reading frame, resulting in a completely different amino acid sequence downstream of the mutation.
What is the role of intercalating agents in mutagenesis?
They directly interfere with the replication process.
How do base analogs affect DNA?
They incorporate into DNA and disrupt its structure, with some tautomerizing at a high rate.
What are glucocorticoids primarily responsible for?
Influencing nutrient metabolism in most cells.
What do we call second-site mutations that counteract the effects of a first mutation?
Suppressor mutations or simply suppressors.
What is the role of TFIID in transcription regulation?
TFIID acts as a general transcription factor that can regulate transcription either directly or through coactivators.
What are missense mutations?
Base substitutions in which an amino acid change does occur.
What is the sequence of GRE?
5’ - AG R ACA - 3’ and 3’ - TC Y TGT - 5’.
What is a point mutation?
A change in a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence.
How many DNA double-strand breaks occur each day in a typical human cell?
10 to 100 breaks.
Are mutations present in gametes in somatic mutations?
No, mutations are not present in gametes.
Is DNA repair a single-step or multi-step process?
It is a multi-step process.
What are some examples of covalent modifications that can affect transcription factors?
Phosphorylation, acetylation, or ubiquitination.
How do covalent modifications influence transcription factors?
They can alter the transcription factor’s activity, stability, or ability to bind DNA, thereby influencing gene regulation.
What is the effect of DNA methylation on eukaryotic gene transcription?
It usually inhibits transcription.
How can small effector molecules affect transcription factors?
They can bind to transcription factors, changing their shape or function, which can activate or inhibit gene regulation.
What role do mutagens play in human health?
They are often involved in the development of human cancers.
How do gonadocorticoids affect the body?
They influence the growth and function of the gonads.
What are spontaneous mutations?
Mutations that result from abnormalities in cellular or biological processes.
Give an example of a physical mutagen.
UV light or X-rays.
Give an example of a chemical mutagen.
Pesticides or alkylating agents.
What is another interaction that affects transcription regulation aside from TFIID and Mediator?
Regulation via changes in chromatin structure.
Which organisms have little DNA methylation?
Yeast and Drosophila.
What does polymerase do when it encounters an apurinic site?
It adds a random base.
What is a regulatory protein that decreases the rate of transcription called?
A repressor.
Why are housekeeping genes important?
They are essential genes consistently expressed in all cells, involved in basic cellular functions.
What is the difference between germ-line and somatic mutations?
Germ-line mutations occur in reproductive cells and can be inherited, while somatic mutations occur in non-reproductive cells and are not passed to offspring.
Where do spontaneous mutations originate?
From within the cell.
What types of radiation are considered physical mutagens?
X-rays, gamma rays, ionizing radiation, and UV light.
What are the two conformations of chromatin?
Open (euchromatin) and closed (heterochromatin).
What are induced mutations caused by?
Environmental agents.
detailed DNA mutation and damage bootcamp
Nucleotide excision repair bootcamp
base excision repair bootcamp
mismatch repair bootcamp