What is the purpose of the MGH Housestaff Manual?
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The MGH Housestaff Manual serves as a resource for medical residents and clinicians at MGH, reflecting the experiences and contributions of residents in the Internal Medicine Residency Program.
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What is the purpose of the MGH Housestaff Manual?
The MGH Housestaff Manual serves as a resource for medical residents and clinicians at MGH, reflecting the experiences and contributions of residents in the Internal Medicine Residency Program.
Who are the editors of the 30th Edition of the MGH Housestaff Manual?
The editors of the 30th Edition are Elizabeth Gay, MD, and Noemie Levy, MD.
What is emphasized about the contributions of residents in the Housestaff Manual?
The manual emphasizes the diligent work of residents, whose contributions connect them with past generations of house officers and reflect the spirit of growth in their training and profession.
What should the MGH Housestaff Manual not be used as?
The MGH Housestaff Manual should not be used to provide specific clinical care decisions in individual cases and should not substitute for clinical judgment.
What lifestyle modifications are recommended for patients after acute coronary syndrome?
Recommended lifestyle modifications include:
What are the early complications of myocardial infarction and their clinical signs?
Early Complications (Hours - Days)
Cardiogenic Shock
Myocardial Free Wall Rupture
Interventricular Septal Rupture (VSD)
Papillary Muscle Rupture
LV Aneurysm
What are the late complications of myocardial infarction and their clinical signs?
Late Complications (Weeks - Months)
LV Thrombus
Pericarditis
Coronary Artery In-Stent Thrombosis
What is encouraged regarding the use of the Housestaff Manual?
Users are encouraged to utilize the manual as a quick reference, a teaching tool, a source of relevant publications, and a starting point for personal exploration.
What are the key components of ACLS related to cardiac arrest?
The key components of ACLS related to cardiac arrest include:
What are the common conditions addressed in nephrology according to the MGH Housestaff Manual?
Common conditions addressed in nephrology include:
What are the major topics covered under Infectious Disease in the MGH Housestaff Manual?
Major topics covered under Infectious Disease include:
What are the key areas of focus in the Pulmonary & Critical Care section of the MGH Housestaff Manual?
Key areas of focus in the Pulmonary & Critical Care section include:
What are the main topics covered in the Geriatrics & Palliative Care section?
Main topics covered in the Geriatrics & Palliative Care section include:
What are the primary areas of focus in the Hematology section of the MGH Housestaff Manual?
Primary areas of focus in the Hematology section include:
What are the key topics covered in the Endocrinology section?
Key topics covered in the Endocrinology section include:
What are the initial steps to take when encountering an unresponsive patient?
Check circulation (pulse), airway, and breathing (C-A-B). If no definite pulse is found within 10 seconds, initiate CPR.
What is the recommended first dose of Amiodarone during a code situation?
The first dose of Amiodarone is 300 mg.
What should be done if there is no return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after three shocks?
Consider AP pad placement and double sequential defibrillation.
What are the criteria for determining return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)?
ROSC is indicated by: 1) Pulse + BP, 2) Sustained ETCO2 > 40, 3) Spontaneous waves on a-line.
What is the recommended compression depth and rate during CPR?
Compress 2-2.4 inches deep at a rate of 100-120 BPM, minimizing interruptions and allowing full recoil.
What are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest represented by H&Ts?
The reversible causes include: 1) Hypovolemia, 2) Hemorrhage, 3) Hypoxia, 4) H+ ion (acidosis), 5) Hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, 6) Hypothermia, 7) Thrombosis (coronary and pulmonary), 8) Tension pneumothorax, 9) Tamponade (cardiac), 10) Toxins (drugs, accidents).
What is the preferred thrombolytic agent for known or suspected pulmonary embolism during a code?
Tenecteplase (TNK) is preferred over tPA in PE codes.
What are the contraindications for administering thrombolytics during a code?
Absolute contraindications include: prior intracranial hemorrhage, ischemic stroke, head trauma within 3 months, intracranial neoplasm or AVM, suspected aortic dissection, and active bleeding.
What is the protocol for ECMO consultation during a cardiac arrest?
Page 'ECMO Consult MGH' or use the 'MGH STAT' app to call for consult and follow MGH ECMO guidelines ideally within 10 minutes from code initiation.
What is the first line pressor for hemodynamic stabilization after ROSC in cardiac arrest treatment?
Norepinephrine is the first line pressor for achieving a mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mmHg after return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
What are the key steps in the evaluation for reversible causes after cardiac arrest?
What is the goal of Targeted Temperature Management (TTM) after cardiac arrest?
The goal of TTM is to avoid fever for neuroprotection and to aggressively diagnose and treat infections, as fever is associated with worse neurological outcomes following ischemia and reperfusion injury.
What are the recommended temperature management strategies if a patient is not following commands after cardiac arrest?
What are the relative contraindications to mild hypothermia in post-cardiac arrest patients?
Relative contraindications include:
What is the preferred sedative and analgesic for patients undergoing TTM with mild hypothermia?
Propofol is the preferred sedative agent, and dilaudid (or fentanyl) is the preferred analgesic for patients undergoing TTM with mild hypothermia.
What is the stepwise approach to managing shivering in patients undergoing TTM?
What are the initial assessment steps for a patient with symptomatic bradycardia?
Focused exam: Check vitals, mental status, pupils, signs of pulmonary edema, murmurs, and other symptoms.
Review: Recent ECG, telemetry, lab results, current medications, and any recent dose changes.
Obtain: 12-Lead ECG and have pacing pads available.
IV Access: Order BMP, magnesium, lactate, and possibly troponin.
Monitor: Blood pressure frequently, maintain oxygen saturation > 92%, and ensure airway is clear.
What are the indications for transvenous pacing in bradycardia management?
Transvenous pacing is indicated in the following situations:
What is the role of atropine in the management of bradycardia?
Atropine is used as follows:
What are the potential causes of sinus bradycardia and complete heart block (CHB)?
Potential causes include:
What are the specific antidotes for bradycardia caused by beta blockers and calcium channel blockers?
Specific antidotes include:
What are the initial steps to assess a patient with tachycardia and pulse?
Focused exam: Check vitals, mental status, signs of pulmonary edema, murmurs, temperature (warm/cold), pupils, and other symptoms.
Review: Look at the most recent ECG, telemetry, lab results, medications, and events.
Obtain: A 12-Lead ECG and prepare defibrillator with pads.
IV Access: Administer BMP, magnesium, lactate, and troponin if concerned for ischemia.
Monitor BP: Frequently check blood pressure.
Oxygen: Supplement to maintain saturation >94% and ensure airway is clear.
What criteria indicate that a patient with tachycardia is unstable?
A patient is considered unstable if any of the following are present:
What is the initial drug dosing for Adenosine in the treatment of tachycardia?
What are the synchronized cardioversion doses for different rhythms in tachycardia?
| Rhythm | Mode | Dose (J)* |
|---|---|---|
| Narrow & Regular | Sync | 50-100 |
| Narrow & Irregular | Sync | 120-200 |
| Wide & Regular | Sync | 100 |
| Wide & Irregular | Defib | 120-200 |
*Biphasic (MGH)
What are the recommended medications for narrow and regular tachycardia?
Avoid post orthotopic heart transplant for adenosine and avoid beta-blockers if heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is present.
What are the vagal maneuvers used in the management of tachycardia?
Unilateral Carotid Massage: Supine position with neck extended, apply steady pressure to carotid sinus. Avoid in patients with a history of TIA/CVA in the past 3 months or those with carotid bruits. Success rate: 5%-33%.
Modified Valsalva Maneuver: Semi-recumbent position, blow forcefully into a 10cc syringe for 10-15 seconds, then reposition to supine and raise legs at 45° for 15 seconds. Success rate: 43% effective in breaking SVTs.
Cold Ice Face Immersion: More effective in children; success rate: 17%.
What are the indications for defibrillation, synchronized cardioversion, and transcutaneous pacing?
| Procedure | Indications |
|---|---|
| Defibrillation | Pulseless VT or VF |
| Synchronized Cardioversion | Unstable SVT or VT |
| Transcutaneous Pacing | Unstable bradycardia |
What is the initial energy selection for defibrillation using the Zoll R Series?
The default energy selection for defibrillation is 120 J. The initial dose can be adjusted between 120-200 J depending on the situation.
What steps should be taken if there is a failure to capture during pacing?
If there is a failure to capture, consider the following steps:
What is the procedure for performing synchronized cardioversion with the Zoll R Series?
Select the desired energy using the up and down arrow keys on the front panel.
Press the Sync On/Off button to confirm synchronization.
Press the CHARGE button and ensure the patient is clear.
Press and hold the illuminated SHOCK button to discharge with the next detected R wave.
If additional shocks are needed, increase the energy level as necessary and confirm synchronization.
What should be done if there is a failure to sense during synchronous pacing?
In case of failure to sense during synchronous pacing, switch to asynchronous pacing and reposition the pads as needed.
What medications are typically used for procedural sedation during defibrillation or cardioversion?
For procedural sedation, typically 50 mcg fentanyl followed by 2 mg midazolam is used. In emergent situations, alternatives like Dilaudid 1-2 mg or lorazepam 2 mg can be considered.
What is the normal heart rate range for adults and how is bradycardia and tachycardia defined?
Normal heart rate is 60-100 bpm. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate of <60 bpm, while tachycardia is defined as a heart rate of >100 bpm.
How can you determine the rhythm of an EKG?
To determine the rhythm of an EKG, check if it is regular or irregular and identify if it is sinus or non-sinus. A sinus rhythm is characterized by a P wave before every QRS and a QRS following every P, with a regular rate of 60-100 bpm and a normal P wave axis.
What are the characteristics of P waves in EKG interpretation?
P waves indicate atrial depolarization. Key characteristics include:
What does a wide QRS complex indicate in EKG interpretation?
A wide QRS complex (>120 ms) suggests aberrant supraventricular conduction or a ventricular origin. It may indicate conditions such as bundle branch block (BBB), ventricular activation, or hyperkalemia.
What are the criteria for diagnosing left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) using the Sokolow-Lyon criteria?
The Sokolow-Lyon criteria for diagnosing LVH include:
What is the significance of the QT interval in EKG interpretation?
The QT interval represents ventricular depolarization and repolarization. It is rate-dependent and should be <440 ms (M) and <460 ms (F). A reassuring sign is if the QT interval is less than half the R-R interval with a normal heart rate.
What are the characteristics of right atrial enlargement (RAE) on an EKG?
Right Atrial Enlargement (RAE) is characterized by:
What does the presence of a U wave indicate in EKG interpretation?
The U wave occurs in the same direction as the T wave and is rate-dependent, typically shorter at faster rates. It may indicate conditions such as bradycardia or hypokalemia/hypomagnesemia/hypocalcemia.
What are the characteristics of T wave abnormalities in the context of ischemia?
What does ST depression indicate in an ECG reading?
What are the differential diagnoses for ST elevation in an ECG?
| Diagnosis w/ STE | Characteristic ECG Findings |
|---|---|
| Acute STEMI | STE in ≥2 contiguous leads in coronary distribution, reciprocal STD. |
| LVH | Concave STE in V1-V3 with STD and TWI in I, aVL, V5-V6. |
| LBBB | Concave STE in V1-V3, discordant with negative QRS. |
| Acute pericarditis | Diffuse STE (usually <5mm), PR depression. |
| Printzmetal's angina/vasospasm | Transient STE in coronary distribution. |
| Acute PE | STE in inferior and anteroseptal leads, mimics acute MI. |
| Stress-induced cardiomyopathy (Takotsubo's) | Diffuse STE in precordial leads w/o reciprocal inferior STD. |
| Ventricular aneurysm | Persistent STE after MI, often with abnormal Q waves. |
| Early repolarization | J point elevation ≥1mm in 2 contiguous leads. |
| Brugada syndrome | rSR' and downsloping STE in V1-V2. |
| Male pattern | 1-3mm concave STE, often highest in V2. |
| Normal variant | STE in V3-V5, TWI, short QT, high QRS voltage. |
| Cardioversion | Marked (often >10mm) and transient following DCCV. |
What is Wellens Syndrome and its significance?
What are the characteristic ECG findings associated with electrolyte abnormalities?
| Abnormality | Characteristic ECG Findings |
|---|---|
| Hypokalemia | Prolonged QT, ST depression, flattened T wave, prominent U wave, higher amplitude P wave, prolonged PR |
| Hyperkalemia | Peaked, symmetric T wave → flat P→ prolonged PR + AVB → widened QRS + BBB (severe) → sinusoidal |
| Hypocalcemia | Prolonged QT, unchanged T wave |
| Hypercalcemia | Shortened QT (if severe, T-wave can merge with QRS and mimic STE) |
What are the general principles for diagnosing narrow complex tachycardia?
What are the characteristics of regular narrow complex tachycardias?
| Type of Tachycardia | Characteristics |
|---|---|
| Sinus Tachycardia | Rate >100, gradual onset, underlying causes include hypovolemia, fever, etc. |
| Focal Atrial Tachycardia | Atrial rate 100-200, discrete P waves of abnormal morphology. |
| Junctional Tachycardia | Increased automaticity within the AV node, P waves may be absent or inverted. |
| AVNRT | Rate 150-250, retrograde P waves, short RP interval. |
| AVRT | Rate usually 150-250, retrograde P waves may be present. |
What are the characteristics of irregular narrow complex tachycardias?
| Type of Tachycardia | Characteristics |
|---|---|
| Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (MAT) | Rate ~100-150, discrete P waves with ≥3 morphologies, irregular rhythm. |
| Atrial Fibrillation (AF) | No coordinated atrial activity, irregular rhythm, fibrillatory waves present. |
| Atrial Flutter (AFL) | P wave rate 250-300, may be regular or irregular, characterized by flutter waves. |
What is the most common differential diagnosis for Wide Complex Tachycardia (QRS ≥120ms)?
The most common differential diagnosis for Wide Complex Tachycardia is Ventricular Tachycardia (VT), which accounts for approximately 80% of cases.
What features favor a diagnosis of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
Features that favor a diagnosis of VT include:
What are the management steps for Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
Management of VT includes:
What distinguishes Monomorphic VT from Polymorphic VT?
Monomorphic VT is characterized by consistent QRS complexes, while Polymorphic VT is characterized by variable QRS complexes. Monomorphic VT is often associated with ischemia, structural heart disease, or idiopathic causes, whereas Polymorphic VT can be due to ischemia (acute, CAD, ICM) or prolonged QTc.
What is a VT Storm and how is it managed?
A VT Storm is defined as ≥3 sustained episodes of unstable VT within 24 hours. Management includes:
What are the risk factors associated with atrial fibrillation?
What are the key components of the clinical evaluation for new-onset atrial fibrillation?
What are the management strategies for hemodynamically stable patients with atrial fibrillation and rapid ventricular response?
| Management Strategy | Details |
|---|---|
| Rate Control | - IV medications if HR > 130 or symptomatic, followed by oral agents once controlled. |
What are the indications for cardioversion in atrial fibrillation?
What is the CHA2DS2-VASc score used for in atrial fibrillation management?
The CHA2DS2-VASc score is used to assess the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. It assigns points based on the following criteria:
What is the purpose of the HAS-BLED score in atrial fibrillation management?
The HAS-BLED score is used for risk stratification of bleeding risk in patients receiving oral anticoagulation. It considers factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal function, liver disease, history of stroke, bleeding history, labile INR, age, antiplatelet medications, and alcohol or drug use. A score of ≥3 suggests caution and regular follow-up.
What are the recommendations regarding the use of DOACs versus warfarin in atrial fibrillation?
DOACs (dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban) are recommended over warfarin in all cases except for patients with moderate to severe mitral stenosis, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), or mechanical valves. Warfarin may be preferred over rivaroxaban in patients with rheumatic heart disease.
What is the clinical significance of left atrial appendage occlusion (LAAO) in atrial fibrillation?
Left Atrial Appendage Occlusion (LAAO) is significant as the left atrial appendage is the source of at least 90% of thrombi in patients with cerebrovascular accidents (CVA) and atrial fibrillation. The Watchman device provides stroke prevention comparable to warfarin with a similar bleeding risk and improved mortality, making it a consideration for patients with contraindications to long-term anticoagulation.
How does rhythm control compare to rate control in the management of atrial fibrillation?
Recent guidelines indicate that rhythm control (using antiarrhythmics and ablation) is superior to rate control for patients with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation and concomitant cardiovascular conditions, as it decreases cardiovascular mortality, stroke, and hospitalization for heart failure or acute coronary syndrome. Rhythm control should be considered if persistent AF symptoms impair quality of life, especially in younger patients or those with heart failure.
What are the key differences in the management of atrial flutter compared to atrial fibrillation?
In atrial flutter, the risk of thromboembolism is lower than in atrial fibrillation, but anticoagulation management is similar. Rate control strategies (beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers) are also similar, but achieving successful rate control is more challenging. Rhythm control is typically achieved through ablation, which is more effective than antiarrhythmic drugs, particularly for typical flutter.
What is the definition of QT interval and its normal values?
The QT interval correlates with the repolarization time of the ventricles. Normal values are:
How is QTc calculated and what formulas are recommended by AHA?
QTc is the QT interval corrected for heart rate. Recommended formulas by AHA include:
What are the symptoms and treatment options for congenital long-QT syndromes?
Symptoms of congenital long-QT syndromes include:
Treatment options include:
What are the risk factors for Torsades de Pointes (TdP) in hospitalized patients?
Risk factors for TdP in hospitalized patients include:
What is the management protocol for acquired long QT?
Management of acquired long QT includes:
What are the characteristics and associated symptoms of stable angina?
Characteristics:
Associated Symptoms:
Vague Symptoms in Specific Populations:
What are the physical exam findings associated with acute aortic syndromes?
What are the key features of acute pericarditis?
Symptoms:
Physical Exam Findings:
What are the risk factors and symptoms of pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Risk Factors:
Symptoms:
What are the clinical signs of pneumonia and pneumonitis?
Pneumonia:
Physical Exam Findings:
Pneumonitis:
What are the diagnostic criteria for STEMI according to the basic chest pain algorithm?
STEMI Criteria:
What non-invasive tests are recommended for patients with resolved or stable chest pain?
What are the indications for angiography in patients with suspected ACS?
What is the definition of myocardial injury?
Myocardial injury is defined as any patient with troponin >99th percentile without evidence of myocardial ischemia, which includes symptoms of ischemia, new ischemic ECG changes, new wall-motion abnormalities, and/or acute coronary thrombus on angiography. It can be acute or chronic.
What are the types of myocardial infarction (MI) and their characteristics?
There are two main types of myocardial infarction:
What are the criteria for ruling in and ruling out acute coronary syndrome (ACS) based on hsTnT levels?
For CP onset ≥3h PTA:
For CP onset <3h:
What is the recommended revascularization strategy for STEMI patients?
The primary PCI (PPCI) is the recommended revascularization strategy for patients with STEMI if symptoms onset is within 48 hours. The goals are:
What are the clinical implications of diastolic dysfunction as observed in echocardiography?
What are the four subgroups for urgency to revascularization in NSTE-ACS?
The four subgroups for urgency to revascularization in NSTE-ACS are:
What are the criteria for low-risk patients in acute coronary syndrome management?
Low-risk patients are defined as those with no risk factors, a GRACE score <109, and a TIMI score of 0-1, or those who are not good candidates for angiography.
What factors should guide the selection of revascularization strategy in acute coronary syndrome?
The selection of revascularization strategy should be based on:
What is the preferred revascularization strategy for patients with multivessel disease?
For multivessel disease, CABG is often preferred in cases of:
What adjuncts to revascularization should be initiated at presentation for acute coronary syndrome?
Adjuncts at presentation include:
What is the recommended duration for dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) after acute coronary syndrome?
The default duration for dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) after acute coronary syndrome is 12 months. However, there is an evolving movement to shorten DAPT duration based on recent studies.
What are the contraindications for starting beta blockers in acute coronary syndrome patients?
Beta blockers should not be started in patients with:
What are the key components to assess during the urgent evaluation of post-MI complications?
What are the common electrical complications following a myocardial infarction (MI)?
What is the treatment approach for different types of AV block following an MI?
| Type of AV Block | Treatment Approach |
|---|---|
| First degree AV block | Continue CCB or BB unless PR interval >240ms |
| Second degree AV block: Mobitz Type I | Usually transient; observe, atropine if symptomatic or HR <45 |
| Second degree AV block: Mobitz Type II | Consider temporary pacing; atropine may worsen AV block |
| Third degree AV block | Temporary pacing required; high mortality in anterior MI |
| Intraventricular Conduction Blocks | Monitor; associated with higher mortality and comorbid conditions |
What are the implications of arrhythmias following a myocardial infarction?
What are the key differences between left heart catheterization (LHC) and right heart catheterization (RHC)?
Left Heart Catheterization (LHC):
Right Heart Catheterization (RHC):
What are the preparation steps required before a catheterization procedure?
What are the considerations for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) regarding access and stent types?
Antiplatelet Therapy:
What are the post-procedure care requirements for patients after catheterization?
Femoral Access:
Radial Access:
What are some potential post-catheterization complications to monitor for?
Access Site Complications:
Other Complications:
What factors should be considered when determining the best approach to non-invasive cardiac testing?
The best approach to testing depends on: 1) the clinical question being asked, 2) symptom acuity (often chest pain), 3) baseline cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk or known coronary artery disease (CAD) history, and 4) patient-specific contraindications.
What are the classifications of heart failure according to the ACC/AHA guidelines?
The classifications are:
What are the indications for stress/functional testing in patients with suspected coronary artery disease (CAD)?
Indications for stress/functional testing include:
What are the contraindications for stress/functional testing?
Contraindications for stress/functional testing include:
What is the preferred method of stress testing if the patient is able to reach goal exertion?
Exercise testing is preferred over pharmacologic testing if the patient is able to reach goal exertion, as it is more relevant to real-world stress.
What should be done regarding medication management before a stress test if the question is 'Does the patient have CAD?'
If the question is 'Does the patient have CAD?', hold beta-blockers (BB) and nitrates prior to the stress test.
What is the mechanism of action for non-invasive cardiac testing using vasodilators like regadenoson?
Vasodilation occurs via cAMP, which helps detect ischemia by coronary steal. In stenosed coronary arteries, these arteries cannot further dilate, creating a relative perfusion deficit in diseased vessels.
What are the side effects and precautions associated with regadenoson?
Side effects include wheezing, bradycardia, and hypotension. Caution is advised in patients with active bronchospasm, high-grade AV block, sick sinus syndrome, or severe aortic stenosis.
What is the mechanism of action of dobutamine in cardiac testing?
Dobutamine acts as a positive inotrope and chronotrope via β-1 receptor agonism, with extremely high doses reaching up to 40 mcg/kg/min.
What are the indications for using nuclear imaging in cardiac evaluation?
Nuclear imaging (PET or SPECT) is used to detect areas of perfusion between rest and stress states, measure LV function, assess transient LV dilatation, and evaluate myocardial blood flow reserve.
What are the key components assessed during an Exercise Tolerance Test (ETT)?
Key components include:
What is the purpose of viability testing in cardiac evaluation?
Viability testing aims to determine the viability of ischemic myocardium, assessing for hibernating tissue that may be salvaged with revascularization.
What are the indications for a Coronary CTA (CCTA)?
CCTA is indicated to evaluate the presence and extent of coronary artery disease (CAD), offering plaque characterization and CT FFR. It is not recommended for screening asymptomatic patients.
What is the significance of a Coronary Artery Calcium (CAC) scan in risk assessment?
The CAC scan provides a risk-assessment score for ASCVD risk stratification, guiding decision-making for primary prevention and statin therapy in asymptomatic patients aged 40 and older at intermediate risk.
What are the advantages of using Cardiac MRI in cardiac evaluation?
Cardiac MRI is the modality of choice for assessing functional and tissue properties of the heart, including inflammation, scarring, infiltration, cardiac tumors, and pericardial disease, which cannot be adequately assessed with TTE or CCTA.
What are the key assessments performed in the Parasterna Long Axis view during an echocardiogram?
What is the patient positioning and probe placement for the Apical 4 Chamber view in echocardiography?
What are the indications for a STAT TTE (transthoracic echocardiogram)?
What echocardiographic findings are associated with right heart strain in acute pulmonary embolism (PE)?
What are the common etiologies of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
Common etiologies include:
What are the diagnostic criteria for Stress-induced Cardiomyopathy (Takotsubo)?
The diagnostic criteria include:
What are the risk factors for Sudden Cardiac Death (SCD) in patients with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
Risk factors for SCD/VT in HCM include:
What are the presentations and ECG findings for Amyloidosis in the context of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy?
Presentation and ECG findings for Amyloidosis include:
| Presentation | ECG Findings |
|---|---|
| HF with other findings of amyloid (renal, neurologic, hepatic disease) | Decreased voltage, pseudoinfarct pattern in inferolateral leads |
What are the admission orders for a patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)?
What factors contribute to racial inequities in heart failure outcomes?
Black and Latinx patients with heart failure are less likely to be admitted to cardiology services, which contributes to racial inequities in heart failure outcomes.
What are the contraindicated medications in the management of acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)?
What is the significance of NT-proBNP levels in diagnosing acute decompensated heart failure?
What is the diagnostic criterion for iron deficiency in heart failure patients?
What are the initial management steps for a patient with acute decompensated heart failure?
What are the endpoints for managing acute decompensated heart failure?
The target is the resolution of signs and symptoms of congestion, monitored through daily weights and hemoconcentration.
What is the role of vasodilators in the management of acute decompensated heart failure?
Vasodilators can relieve symptoms by decreasing afterload, reducing pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP), and increasing stroke volume. They are particularly useful in cases of severe hypertension or acute mitral/aortic regurgitation.
What is the guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) prior to discharge?
What is the treatment approach for HFmrEF (EF 40-49%)?
Treat with diuretics and consider adding GDMT agents for HFrEF (Current Heart Failure Reports 2020;17:1).
What are the management goals for outpatient heart failure with EF ≤ 40% (HFrEF)?
The goals include:
What are the indications for ICD and CRT in heart failure patients?
ICD is indicated if:
CRT is indicated if:
What is the definition of cardiogenic shock?
Cardiogenic shock is defined as:
What is the immediate management for a patient with suspected acute MI and cardiogenic shock?
Immediate management includes:
What are the goals of tailored therapy in cardiogenic shock?
The goals of tailored therapy include:
What are the considerations for using inotropes in cardiogenic shock management?
Inotropes such as dobutamine and milrinone are used to improve contractility. Key considerations include:
What factors govern normal right ventricular (RV) function?
Normal RV function is governed by:
What are the clinical features of acute right ventricular (RV) failure?
Clinical features of acute RV failure include:
What imaging techniques are used to assess right ventricular (RV) function?
Imaging techniques for assessing RV function include:
What is the gold standard for measuring ventricular filling pressures and cardiac output?
The gold standard for measuring ventricular filling pressures and cardiac output is right heart catheterization (RHC) with placement of a pulmonary artery (PA) line.
What are the management strategies for acute right ventricular failure?
Management strategies for acute RV failure include:
What are the risks associated with intubation and mechanical ventilation in patients with right ventricular failure?
Intubation and mechanical ventilation can increase pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) and RV afterload, leading to:
What EKG changes are associated with right ventricular myocardial infarction (RVMI)?
EKG changes associated with RVMI include:
What are the indications for using an Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump (IABP)?
What are the key management considerations for an Impella device?
What complications are associated with the use of a Durable Ventricular Assist Device (VAD)?
What is the support provided by VA-ECMO?
Full bi-ventricular support (4-10 L/min) + oxygenation & CO2 clearance
What are the contraindications for mechanical circulatory support?
What are the indications for using a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC)?
The indications for using a PAC include diagnosing the etiology of shock (e.g., cardiogenic vs. distributive), differentiating between cardiogenic and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, assessing left vs. right ventricular failure, determining the etiology of pulmonary hypertension, evaluating left-to-right shunting, valve disease, and pericardial disease.
What is the significance of the ESCAPE trial regarding the use of PAC in patients with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)?
The ESCAPE trial showed no mortality benefit to the empiric use of PAC in patients with ADHF who were not on inotropes. Despite this, PACs remain standard of care and are guideline-recommended in carefully selected patients, such as those with cardiogenic or mixed shock on inotropes or pressors.
What are the steps to obtain pulmonary artery line numbers during morning rounds?
What are the normal hemodynamic parameters for a pulmonary artery catheter?
The normal hemodynamic parameters are as follows:
What are the clinical considerations for placing a pulmonary artery catheter?
Clinical considerations for placing a PAC include:
What are the types of Permanent Pacemakers (PPM)?
What is the primary function of an Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrillator (ICD)?
The ICD is a device with an RV lead capable of terminating re-entrant ventricular tachyarrhythmias via pacing, cardioversion, or defibrillation.
What is the purpose of Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy (CRT)?
CRT provides simultaneous RV + LV pacing in patients with Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction (HFrEF) and wide QRS to address dyssynchrony, leading to LV reverse remodeling and increased LVEF.
What are the indications for Permanent Pacemakers (PPM) in patients with Sinus Node Dysfunction?
What are the Class I indications for Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrillators (ICD) in primary prevention?
What are the indications for Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy (CRT)?
CRT is indicated for patients with:
What are the common causes of aortic stenosis in patients under 70 years old?
The most common cause of aortic stenosis in patients under 70 years old is a bicuspid valve. Other causes include aortic sclerosis (calcification of the valve), rheumatic heart disease (where leaflets fuse, often with concurrent mitral valve disease), and radiation-induced changes.
What are the clinical manifestations of severe aortic stenosis and their prognostic implications?
The clinical manifestations of severe aortic stenosis include:
Prognostic Implications: The most important determinant of prognosis is the presence of symptoms; mortality rates are 50% at 5 years if angina is present, 3 years if syncope, and 2 years if heart failure is present.
What are the diagnostic criteria for severe aortic stenosis?
The diagnostic criteria for severe aortic stenosis include:
What are the treatment options for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms (AAA)?
Medical Treatment:
Surgical Treatment:
What are the indications for aortic valve replacement (AVR) in aortic stenosis?
Indications for aortic valve replacement (AVR) in aortic stenosis include:
What are the anticoagulation recommendations after valve replacement for different types of prostheses?
Anticoagulation recommendations after valve replacement are as follows:
| Prosthesis | Location | Timing and Risk Factors for AC | INR | Class |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mechanical | Mitral | Indefinitely | 2.5-3.5 (+ ASA 81) | I |
| Aortic | Indefinitely, (+) risk factors | 2.5-3.5 (+ ASA 81) | I | |
| Indefinitely, (-) risk factors | 2.0-3.0 (+ ASA 81) | I | ||
| Bioprosthetic | Mitral | First 3 months after placement, regardless of RFs | 2.0-3.0 (+ ASA 81) | Ila |
| >3 months after placement | ASA 81 | Ila | ||
| Aortic | First 3 months after placement, regardless of RFs | 2.0-3.0 (+ ASA 81) | Ila | |
| >3 months after placement | ASA 81 | Ila | ||
| TAVI | Aortic | No AC; indefinite antiplatelet monotherapy | ASA 81 or Clopidogrel 75 | Ila |
What are the common etiologies of aortic regurgitation?
Acute: aortic dissection, valve perforation (usually due to MI or endocarditis), traumatic valve leaflet rupture.
Chronic: leaflet abnormalities (bicuspid valve, endocarditis, RHD) or root dilation (secondary to HTN, CTD, dissection, syphilis).
What is the pathophysiology of chronic aortic regurgitation?
Diastolic regurgitant flow leads to increased left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP), which initially maintains stroke volume (SV) and cardiac output (CO). Over time, this results in progressive ventricular dilatation and eventual heart failure.
What are the clinical signs of mitral stenosis?
Common clinical signs include dyspnea (most common), pulmonary edema, hemoptysis, and venous thromboembolism (VTE) even without atrial fibrillation (AFib).
Auscultation reveals a loud S1, high-pitched opening snap, and a low-pitched diastolic rumble at the apex.
What is the first-line treatment for chronic aortic regurgitation?
First-line treatment: ACE inhibitors, ARBs, or Entresto.
Second-line treatment: Calcium channel blockers or hydralazine/nitrates to reduce left ventricular afterload.
Surgical intervention: Consider aortic valve replacement (AVR) if symptomatic severe AR or specific left ventricular criteria are met.
What are the indications for intervention in mitral stenosis?
Intervention is generally indicated for patients with severe mitral stenosis (MV area ≤1cm²) who are symptomatic.
Rheumatic MS: Consider percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy (PMBC) for symptomatic patients with favorable valve morphology.
Nonrheumatic Calcific MS: Consider intervention only after discussing high risk.
What are the treatment options for acute mitral regurgitation?
Acute treatment options include:
What are the clinical features of tricuspid regurgitation?
Clinical features include signs of right-sided heart failure such as hepatosplenomegaly, ascites, peripheral edema, and a large V wave in the jugular venous pressure (JVP).
Auscultation reveals a holosystolic murmur at the left mid- or lower sternal border that increases with inspiration, along with an S3 heart sound.
What is the recommended prophylaxis for infective endocarditis (IE)?
Prophylaxis is reasonable in patients undergoing dental manipulation if they have:
What is cardiac tamponade and what causes it?
Cardiac tamponade is a condition characterized by hemodynamic insufficiency due to impaired cardiac filling caused by increased pericardial pressure from effusion. This leads to elevated intracardiac chamber pressures and equalization of diastolic pressure in all four heart chambers. Common etiologies include idiopathic (20%), iatrogenic (16%), malignant (13%), uremic, infectious, heart failure, and autoimmune causes. Tamponade is more likely in cases of malignant, post-viral (including SARS-CoV-2), uremic, and iatrogenic origins.
What are the clinical manifestations of cardiac tamponade?
Beck's Triad is a classic clinical manifestation of cardiac tamponade, consisting of:
Additionally, pulsus paradoxus is noted, which is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure during inspiration. Other symptoms may include dyspnea and tachycardia. An ECG may show sinus tachycardia, low QRS voltage, and electrical alternans.
What is the definition of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?
Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD) is defined as arterial stenosis or occlusion causing an imbalance of blood flow relative to muscular metabolism, primarily affecting the legs more than the arms.
What are the treatment options for cardiac tamponade?
Treatment for cardiac tamponade includes:
What are the clinical features associated with cardiac tamponade?
The following clinical features are associated with cardiac tamponade:
| Sign/Symptom | Sensitivity | 95% CI |
|---|---|---|
| Dyspnea | 87-89% | n/a |
| Tachycardia | 77% | 69-85% |
| Pulsus paradoxus | 82% | 72-92% |
| Elevated JVP | 76% | 62-90% |
| Cardiomegaly on CXR | 89% | 73-100% |
What are the classifications of pericarditis?
Pericarditis can be classified into the following categories:
What are the first-line treatments for pericarditis?
The first-line treatments for pericarditis include:
What are the three distinct processes classified under Acute Aortic Syndromes (AAS)?
What are the classifications of aortic dissection according to DeBakey and Stanford?
| Classification | Description |
|---|---|
| DeBakey Type I | Affects both ascending and descending aorta |
| DeBakey Type II | Affects ascending aorta only |
| DeBakey Type III | Affects descending aorta only |
| Stanford Type A | Involves ascending aorta |
| Stanford Type B | Involves descending aorta only |
What are the key risk factors for aortic dissection?
What are the clinical features and complications associated with Acute Aortic Syndromes?
Clinical Features:
Complications:
What is the management goal for aortic dissection and the recommended agents?
Goal: Minimize aortic wall stress by reducing left ventricular ejection force (dP/dT) with target heart rate <60 and systolic blood pressure 100-120 mmHg.
Agents:
What are the key epidemiological differences between Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) and Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm (TAA)?
| Aneurysm Type | Gender Prevalence | Age Group | Location Distribution |
|---|---|---|---|
| AAA | M > F | > 65 yo | Mostly infrarenal |
| TAA | M > F | 50-70 yo | 50% ascending Ao, 40% descending Ao, 10% arch |
What are the common risk factors for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) and Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm (TAA)?
| Aneurysm Type | Common Risk Factors |
|---|---|
| AAA | Smoking, male sex, age, pre-existing atherosclerosis, obesity, HLD, HTN, FHx |
| TAA | Smoking, HLD, HTN (Atherosclerotic); CTD (Marfan, Ehlers-Danlos, Loeys-Dietz), Turner syndrome, bicuspid AoV, trauma (Structural/genetic); 3º syphilis, mycotic aneurysm (Infectious); GCA, Takayasu, RA, psoriasis, Behcet's, Wegener's, IgG4 (Inflammatory) |
What are the recommended screening guidelines for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?
What imaging modalities are used for the diagnosis and surveillance of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms (AAA)?
| Imaging Modality | Purpose |
|---|---|
| Abdominal US | Screening and surveillance of infrarenal AAAs; high sensitivity/specificity (>90%) |
| CTA | High sensitivity/specificity; preferred for suprarenal AAA |
| MRI/MRA | Good sensitivity/specificity; preferred for aortic root imaging |
| CXR | Non-specific for enlarged aorta |
| TTE | Useful for root & proximal thoracic aorta; TEE visualizes entire thoracic aorta but rarely used |
What are the acute presentations of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms (AAA)?
What is the definition of syncope in the context of cardiology?
Transient (self-limited) loss of consciousness due to cerebral hypoperfusion, associated with loss of postural tone, followed by complete spontaneous recovery; excludes metabolic causes such as hypoglycemia, hypoxia, and intoxication.
What are the high-risk symptoms associated with syncope that may indicate the need for hospitalization?
High-risk symptoms include: preceding palpitations, exertional syncope, bleeding, syncope while supine, lack of prodrome, and trauma.
What are the high-risk features that may necessitate hospitalization for a patient experiencing syncope?
High-risk features include: angina, congestive heart failure (CHF), moderate to severe valvular or structural heart disease, ECG features of ischemia or arrhythmia, family history of sudden cardiac death (SCD), preexcitation syndromes, high-risk occupation (e.g., airline pilot), and facial trauma (lack of warning time).
What is the San Francisco Syncope Rule (SFSR) and its purpose?
The San Francisco Syncope Rule (SFSR) is a clinical tool used to assess the need for hospitalization in patients with syncope. It indicates that a patient should be admitted if they have at least one of the following: ECG changes or non-sinus rhythm, dyspnea, hematocrit <30, systolic blood pressure <90, or heart failure.
What are the common etiologies of syncope and their respective historical features?
| Etiology | Historical Features |
|---|---|
| Reflex (60%) | Prodrome of dizziness, nausea, warmth, diaphoresis, pallor; associated with intense emotion, pain, stress, or prolonged standing. |
| Orthostasis (15%) | Prodrome of dizziness, nausea, warmth, diaphoresis, pallor; risk factors include primary and secondary autonomic failure. |
| Cardiac (15%) | No prodrome, syncope while sitting or supine, palpitations, family history or personal history of heart disease. |
| Neurologic (<10%) | Seizure: lateral tongue biting, urinary/fecal incontinence, aura; stroke/TIA: focal deficits; subclavian steal: syncope after arm exercise. |
What are the treatment options for reflex syncope?
What diagnostic methods are used for orthostatic syncope?
Orthostatic vital signs are assessed, looking for a systolic drop of ≥20 mmHg or diastolic drop of ≥10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing or on a head-up tilt test ≥60°. Additional tests may include hematocrit, A1C, and serum protein electrophoresis if amyloid is suspected.
What are the potential treatments for cardiac syncope?
What are the diagnostic methods for neurologic causes of syncope?
For seizures, an EEG is used; for stroke, CT or MRI/MRA is performed; for subclavian steal, ultrasound with Dopplers is specified for subclavian steal. Carotid Dopplers are of low clinical utility.
What defines severe asymptomatic hypertension (HTN urgency)?
Severe asymptomatic hypertension (HTN urgency) is defined as a systolic blood pressure (SBP) ≥180 or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) ≥120 without evidence of end-organ damage, although patients may experience mild headaches.
What are the key differences in management between severe asymptomatic hypertension and hypertensive emergency?
| Aspect | Severe Asymptomatic HTN | Hypertensive Emergency |
|---|---|---|
| Triage location | Floor vs outpatient management | Floor vs ICU |
| Correction time course | BP should not exceed 25-30% reduction over hours to days | MAP should decrease by 10-20% in the first hour, further 5-15% over the next 23 hours |
| Route of medication administration | Oral medications; avoid IV or high-dose meds | Start with short-acting, titratable IV agents |
| Suggested medications | PO: captopril, labetalol | IV: labetalol, hydralazine, nitro paste/patch |
What is the recommended BP goal for a patient with acute pulmonary edema in a hypertensive emergency?
The recommended blood pressure goal for a patient with acute pulmonary edema in a hypertensive emergency is to achieve a systolic blood pressure (SBP) of less than 140 mmHg within 1 hour.
What are the suggested medications for managing aortic dissection in a hypertensive emergency?
For managing aortic dissection in a hypertensive emergency, the suggested medications include:
What is the dosing and duration of action for esmolol in a hypertensive emergency?
Esmolol is administered as a 500 µg/kg load given over 1 minute, followed by an infusion of 25-50 µg/kg/min, which can be adjusted by 25 µg/kg/min every 10-20 minutes up to a maximum of 300 µg/kg/min. Its onset is <1 minute, and the duration of action is 10-20 minutes.
What are the common symptoms of Peripheral Artery Disease?
Common symptoms of Peripheral Artery Disease include:
What does an Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) of ≤0.9 indicate?
An Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) of ≤0.9 is considered abnormal and indicates a high likelihood of arteriogram-positive lesions with ≥50% stenosis, suggesting the presence of Peripheral Artery Disease.
What are the treatment options for Peripheral Artery Disease?
Treatment options for Peripheral Artery Disease include:
What are the signs of acute limb ischemia?
Signs of acute limb ischemia include the 6Ps:
What are the different presentations of chemotherapy cardiovascular toxicity?
Chemotherapy cardiovascular toxicity includes:
What are the risk factors for chemotherapy-related cardiovascular toxicity?
Risk factors include:
What diagnostic methods are used for assessing chemotherapy cardiovascular toxicity?
Diagnostic methods include:
What are the recommendations for the prevention of chemotherapy-related cardiovascular toxicity?
Prevention strategies include:
What is the recommended screening and monitoring for patients undergoing chemotherapy?
Screening and monitoring recommendations include:
What are the treatment options for managing chemotherapy-related cardiovascular toxicity?
Treatment options include:
What are the common cardiotoxic therapies associated with cancer treatment?
Common cardiotoxic therapies include:
What are the non-modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
What does the 2019 ACC/AHA guideline recommend regarding aspirin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease?
What are the categories of hypertension according to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines?
| Category | Systolic BP (SBP) | Diastolic BP (DBP) |
|---|---|---|
| Normal | <120 | <80 |
| Elevated | 120-129 | <80 |
| Stage 1 HTN | 130-139 | 80-89 |
| Stage 2 HTN | >140 | >90 |
What are some clinical clues and work-up recommendations for secondary hypertension due to renal artery stenosis?
Clinical Clues:
50% rise in creatinine after ACE/ARB initiation.
Work-up:
What lifestyle interventions can impact systolic blood pressure (SBP) in patients with hypertension?
| Intervention | Approach | SBP Impact |
|---|---|---|
| Exercise | Aerobic: 90-150 min/wk at 65-75% HR reserve | ↓5-8 mmHg |
| Exercise | Dynamic resistance | ↓4 mmHg |
| Exercise | Isometric resistance | ↓5 mmHg |
| Weight loss | 1 kg weight loss | ↓1 mmHg |
| Diet (DASH) | ↑ vegetables, fruits, whole grains; ↓ sweets, red meat | ↓11 mmHg |
| Sodium | <1.5g/day | ↓5-6 mmHg |
| Potassium | 3.5-5g/day | ↓4-5 mmHg |
| Alcohol | <1/2 standard drink/day | ↓4 mmHg |
When should Stage I hypertension be treated?
Stage I hypertension should be treated if there is clinical cardiovascular disease (CVD), diabetes mellitus type 2 (DM2), chronic kidney disease (CKD), or atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) risk of 10% or greater.
What is the target blood pressure for hypertension management?
The target blood pressure for hypertension management is less than 130/80 mmHg.
What are the first-line agents for treating hypertension?
First-line agents for treating hypertension include thiazides (such as chlorthalidone or HCTZ), ACE inhibitors (ACEi), angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB), and calcium channel blockers (CCB).
What are the compelling indications for using beta-blockers in hypertension management?
Compelling indications for using beta-blockers in hypertension management include coronary artery disease (CAD) and pregnancy.
What monitoring is recommended after initiating treatment for hypertension?
Follow-up evaluations for blood pressure response and adherence should occur at monthly intervals until blood pressure is controlled. Additionally, check BMP/Mg if starting ACEi/ARB or diuretic, 2-4 weeks after initiation, then yearly or with dose adjustments.
What are the key findings from the SPRINT trial regarding blood pressure goals?
The SPRINT trial found that a systolic blood pressure goal of less than 120 mmHg compared to 135-139 mmHg resulted in a reduction of cardiovascular events and all-cause mortality in high-risk patients, although it also noted risks of non-orthostatic hypotension, syncope, electrolyte abnormalities, and acute kidney injury.
What is the recommended approach for cholesterol screening in adults?
Adults aged 20 years and older should have a lipid panel checked to establish baseline LDL-C and estimate ASCVD risk. Measurement of apoB and Lp(a) may also be beneficial for risk estimation.
What lifestyle interventions are recommended for managing cholesterol levels?
Recommended lifestyle interventions include:
What are the indications for statin therapy based on ASCVD risk?
Indications for statin therapy include:
What are the indications for using statins in cardiovascular health?
Statins are indicated as 1st-line therapy for primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular events.
What is the mechanism of action of Ezetimibe and its indication?
Ezetimibe works by decreasing intestinal cholesterol absorption and is indicated for statin-intolerant patients or those with LDL-C >70 mg/dL with cardiovascular disease.
What is the effect of PCSK9 inhibitors on cardiovascular outcomes?
PCSK9 inhibitors, when used with statins, have been shown to reduce cardiovascular events, with an ARR of 1.5% for evolocumab and 1.6% for alirocumab.
What are the recommended medications for managing chronic coronary disease according to the 2023 ACC/AHA guidelines?
Recommended medications include:
What lifestyle modifications are recommended for patients with chronic coronary disease?
Lifestyle modifications include dietary changes, physical activity, smoking cessation, and weight management, as part of comprehensive cardiovascular care.
What is the mechanism of action for Procainamide and its primary uses?
Procainamide works by Na channel blockade, leading to conduction slowing and an increase in action potential. It is primarily used for ventricular tachycardia (VT) and atrial fibrillation (AF), especially in accessory bypass tracts like Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome.
What are the dosing guidelines for Lidocaine in the treatment of VT?
For Lidocaine, the dosing guidelines are as follows:
What are the contraindications for the use of Amiodarone?
Amiodarone is contraindicated in patients with:
What are the side effects associated with Sotalol?
Sotalol can cause the following side effects:
Contraindications include:
What is the mechanism of action and primary use of Digoxin?
Digoxin inhibits the Na/K ATPase, leading to increased calcium influx, suppression of AV node conduction, and increased vagal tone, acting as a positive inotrope. It is primarily used for AFib, Aflutter, heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), and SVT.
What are the dosing recommendations for Dofetilide?
The dosing recommendations for Dofetilide are:
What does JVD indicate in a physical exam and what conditions is it associated with?
JVD (Jugular Venous Distension) indicates elevated right atrial pressure. It is associated with conditions such as heart failure, tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, superior vena cava syndrome, tricuspid stenosis, and large CV waves in tricuspid regurgitation.
How is the S3 heart sound characterized and what is its clinical significance?
The S3 heart sound is characterized as a 'sloshing' of blood hitting a compliant ventricular wall, occurring after S2. It is associated with heart failure and can be physiological in younger patients. It is best heard with the bell at the apex in the left lateral decubitus position.
What does the presence of an S4 heart sound indicate and in which patients can it be normal?
The S4 heart sound indicates blood flow from the atrial kick into a stiff ventricular wall, occurring right before S1. It is associated with left ventricular hypertrophy, acute myocardial infarction, and cardiomyopathy. It can be normal in older adults but cannot be present in atrial fibrillation (AF) due to the absence of an atrial kick.
What is the significance of peripheral edema in a physical exam?
Peripheral edema occurs when capillary hydrostatic pressure overwhelms the lymphatic drainage ability, indicating volume overload. It is assessed by measuring the depth of the depression left by pressing on the skin, with varying degrees indicating severity.
What does a right ventricular (RV) heave indicate and how is it assessed?
An RV heave indicates right ventricular enlargement and is felt best over the left parasternal region. If the heel of the hand rises with systole, it suggests a heave. It is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular volume overload.
How is the aortic stenosis (AS) murmur characterized and what are its clinical implications?
The AS murmur is characterized by turbulent flow across a stenotic aortic valve, becoming later and diminishing S2 as severity increases. It is loudest at the right 2nd intercostal space and radiates to the right carotid. It is associated with aortic stenosis and can be differentiated from increased aortic flow without obstruction.
What are the key steps in measuring the jugular venous pressure (JVP)?
Key steps in measuring JVP include:
What are the steps to run telemetry on a patient?
Steps to run telemetry include:
What are the key symptoms of respiratory distress?
What is the initial approach to a patient in respiratory distress?
What are the red flags indicating the need for immediate intervention in respiratory distress?
What are the differential diagnoses for dyspnea?
| Category | Conditions |
|---|---|
| Cardiovascular | MI, HF, VHD, arrhythmia, tamponade, PE, PHT |
| Airways | Asthma, COPD, mucus plugging, angioedema, anaphylaxis, foreign body, vocal cord dysfunction |
| Alveoli | Edema, pneumonia, hemorrhage |
| Pleural | Large effusion, pneumothorax |
| CNS | CVA, intoxication (CO, ASA, BZD), metabolic acidosis (sepsis, DKA), psych/anxiety |
| Other | Anemia, abdominal girth, ALS/GBS/MG |
What is the decision-making process for intubation in respiratory distress?
What are the specific treatments for respiratory distress in CHF and asthma?
| Condition | Treatment |
|---|---|
| CHF | CPAP, IV diuresis, nitrates (paste or drip if BP stable) |
| Asthma | Nebulizers (albuterol), IV steroids (methylprednisolone), magnesium sulfate; consider BiPAP if RR remains high |
What are the two main types of respiratory failure and their definitions?
Respiratory failure can be classified as:
What is the significance of the P:F ratio in assessing respiratory failure?
The P:F ratio (P=PaO2/F=FiO2) serves as a quick surrogate for the A-a gradient. A P:F ratio < 300 suggests the presence of ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome).
What are the potential causes of hypoxemic respiratory failure?
Causes of hypoxemic respiratory failure include:
What are the characteristics of hypercapnic respiratory failure?
Hypercapnic respiratory failure can be categorized into two main types:
How does hypercapnia affect acid-base balance in the body?
Hypercapnia leads to respiratory acidosis, characterized by an increase in pCO2. The bicarbonate (HCO3) levels change as follows:
What are the recommended target SpO2 levels for supplemental oxygen therapy in critical illness?
Target SpO2 levels are recommended to be 91-96%. Recent trials found no benefit to higher or lower targets in critical illness.
What are the flow rates and FiO2 percentages for a Non-Rebreather mask?
Flow rates for a Non-Rebreather mask are 10-15 LPM, providing an FiO2 of 60-100%. It is considered first for acute hypoxemia due to its easy accessibility.
What are the contraindications for Non-Invasive Positive Pressure Ventilation (NIPPV)?
Contraindications for NIPPV include:
What is the ROX index used for in the context of HFNC?
The ROX index is a tool for predicting HFNC failure and monitoring the need for intubation in patients with pneumonia.
What are the physiological effects of High Flow Nasal Cannula (HFNC)?
The physiological effects of HFNC include:
What is the ABCDEF approach in interpreting a chest X-ray?
The ABCDEF approach includes:
What are common findings in chest imaging and their associated etiologies?
| Common Findings | Definition | Associated Etiologies |
|---|---|---|
| Consolidations | Complete filling of alveoli, dense ↑ attenuation obscuring underlying lung architecture +/- air bronchograms | PNA > Malignancy |
| GGO's | Partial filling of alveoli +/- interstitium, appears as hazy ↑ lung attenuation (light gray) that does NOT obscure underlying architecture | Infxn, edema, blood, fibrosis, malig |
| Tree-in-Bud | Branching linear opacities & nodules representing dz'd lobular bronchioles or bronchiolitis & filling with fluid, pus, mucus, or pulmonary tumoral emboli | Infxn (incl. tb), CTD, ABPA, carc. Endarteritis, CF |
| Emphysema | Airspace enlargement > 1-2 cm in diameter. |
What is the significance of honeycombing in chest imaging?
Honeycombing refers to the clustering of cystic airspace disease, with microcystic <4mm and macrocystic >4mm. It is commonly associated with Interstitial Lung Disease (ILD), specifically Non-Specific Interstitial Pneumonia (NSIP) for microcystic and Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF) for macrocystic changes.
How does the interpretation of a CT chest differ from a chest X-ray?
CT chest is used to characterize abnormal findings seen on CXR and to investigate suspected pathology that may not be visible on CXR. It involves:
What is the definition of asthma according to GINA 2023 and NAEPP 2020?
Asthma is a heterogeneous condition characterized by respiratory symptoms such as wheeze, shortness of breath (SOB), chest tightness, and cough, along with variable expiratory airflow limitation.
What are the common triggers for asthma symptoms?
Common triggers for asthma symptoms include:
What are the key components of asthma management in outpatient care?
Key components of asthma management in outpatient care include:
What are the characteristics of asthma exacerbations in outpatient and inpatient settings?
Outpatient Exacerbations:
Inpatient Exacerbations:
What is the significance of the FEV1/FVC ratio in pulmonary function testing for asthma diagnosis?
The FEV1/FVC ratio is crucial in pulmonary function testing:
What are the differences in treatment approaches for asthma and COPD overlap (ACO)?
In asthma/COPD overlap (ACO), treatment includes: