How does dysfunctional CD4+ T cell memory affect bacterial persistence?
Click to see answer
It promotes persistence of bacteria by failing to mount an effective immune response.
Click to see question
How does dysfunctional CD4+ T cell memory affect bacterial persistence?
It promotes persistence of bacteria by failing to mount an effective immune response.
Which bacteria produce IgA proteases and what is their role?
Neisseria, H. influenzae, and S. pneumoniae produce IgA proteases to degrade immunoglobulin A, aiding in immune evasion.
What factors influence disease development in bacterial infections?
Host immune status, site of bacterial colonization, bacterial virulence, and tissue damage.
When does disease occur in the context of host-pathogen interactions?
Disease occurs when the host-pathogen balance is disrupted.
What immune responses are key for dealing with invasive bacteria?
Opsonization and antibody responses.
What type of immunity dominates in response to intracellular bacteria?
Cell-mediated immunity and macrophage activation.
What type of protease does M. haemolytica produce and what is its target?
M. haemolytica produces a protease that targets bovine IgG1, contributing to immune evasion.
What is the role of IL-2 protease produced by P. aeruginosa?
The IL-2 protease produced by P. aeruginosa aids in immune evasion by degrading cytokines.
What immunosuppressive strategy is employed by Brucella abortus?
It acts as a B cell mitogen to promote IL-10 production, which suppresses inflammation.
How do biofilms contribute to immune evasion in bacteria?
Biofilms inhibit opsonization and phagocytosis.
Which bacteria are known to suppress NF-κB, TNF-α, and IL-18 as part of their immune evasion strategies?
M. tuberculosis, Salmonella, and Brucella.
What is the effect of cytokine modulation on chronic infections caused by certain bacteria?
It promotes M2 polarization through IL-10 and TGF-β, leading to chronic infections such as brucellosis and tuberculosis.
How do virulent mycobacteria survive in macrophages?
They induce necrosis, allowing bacterial escape.
What is the response of avirulent mycobacteria in macrophages?
They cause apoptosis, which leads to containment of the bacteria.
What role does mannosylated lipoarabinomannan play in immune evasion?
It binds to TLR2, induces IL-10, and inhibits macrophage activity.
What are primary superficial fungal infections and what do they affect?
They affect skin and mucosal surfaces, caused by fungi such as Microsporum and Candida, leading to conditions like ringworm or thrush.
What are primary systemic fungal infections and which fungi are commonly involved?
They are caused by dimorphic fungi mainly affecting the respiratory tract, including Histoplasma capsulatum, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Coccidioides immitis.
What characterizes secondary (opportunistic) fungal infections?
They occur in immunodeficient animals and include fungi such as Mucorales (Rhizopus, Mucor, Absidia) and Pneumocystis jiroveci.
What types of immune responses are involved in fungal infections?
Both innate and adaptive immune mechanisms are involved in the response to fungal infections.
What role does the alternate complement pathway play in innate immune defenses against fungi?
It recruits neutrophils to infection sites.
How do neutrophils defend against fungal infections?
By attacking hyphae/pseudohyphae through enzyme and oxidant release into tissue fluids and partial ingestion of small fungal fragments/spores.
Which cells besides neutrophils are involved in ingesting smaller fungal particles?
Macrophages and NK cells.
What triggers the synthesis of IL-23 in the immune response to fungi?
Fungal PAMPs via TLR2 or Dectin-1.
What is the role of IL-23 in the immune response against fungi?
It activates Th17 cells, which produce IL-17, leading to neutrophil and endothelial activation and acute inflammation.
What is the significance of the IL-23/IL-17 axis in fungal immunology?
It is crucial for activating the immune response, particularly in recruiting neutrophils and promoting inflammation.
How does Candida morphology influence the immune response?
Candida hyphae promote a Th17 response (via IL-23 to IL-17), while the yeast form promotes a Th1 response (via IL-12 production).
What are the functional roles of Th17 cells in fungal immunity?
Th17 cells recruit neutrophils and initiate early inflammation.
What is the critical role of Th1 cells in fungal infections?
Th1 cells are critical for chronic control and macrophage activation.
Which bacterium is a commensal in healthy swine?
Bordetella bronchiseptica.
What is the purpose of studying bacterial immunology?
Understanding host defense mechanisms against bacterial infections.
Why do most bacteria not invade or cause disease in animals?
Due to effective innate and adaptive immune defenses, bacteria benefit from host survival, and many bacteria are beneficial (commensals).
True or false? Animals coexist with dense bacterial populations.
True
What role do beneficial bacteria play in maintaining surface environments?
They maintain surface environments hostile to pathogens.
How do beneficial bacteria aid in digestion?
They help in the digestion of celluloses.
What is one way beneficial bacteria promote health?
They promote immune system development.
What are two examples of beneficial bacteria found in horses?
Clostridium tetani and C. perfringens.
What are mobile genetic elements in the context of bacterial virulence factors?
They are genetic elements that can be transmitted between species and encode various virulence factors.
What are some functions of bacterial virulence factors?
They penetrate epithelial barriers, bind to host cells, acquire iron, evade immune responses, hide intracellularly, and facilitate transmission.
How do virulence mechanisms affect the host?
They cause host tissue damage.
What are the two phases of antimicrobial immunity?
Early innate response and sustained adaptive response.
What triggers the early innate response in antimicrobial immunity?
Recognition via Toll-like receptors (TLRs) and Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs).
What is triggered by the recognition via Toll-like receptors (TLRs) and Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs).?
Inflammation, cytokine release, and complement activation.
What do Toll-like receptors (TLRs) detect?
Bacterial PAMPS (Pathogen-Associated Molecular Patterns).
What is the role of TLRs in the innate immunity against bacteria?
They detect bacterial PAMPs and activate host defense genes through a signal cascade.
True or false? Some chickens have a special version (allele) of the TLR4 gene that makes this receptor better at recognizing Salmonella Typhimurium. For this reason, chicken present more resistant to Salmonella Typhimurium
True
What is the correlation between foal resistance to Rhodococcus equi and TLRs?
It is linked to TLR2.
When the foal’s immune system detects Rhodococcus equi, what is the effect on neutrophils?
Neutrophils increases IL-23 production.
What cytokines are involved in Th17 differentiation?
IL-23, IL-6, and TGF-β.
What do Th17 cells produce?
IL-17, IL-6, GM-CSF, G-CSF, and chemokines.
What is the function of Th17 cells in the immune response?
They recruit neutrophils and enhance mucosal defense.
What do bacterial PAMPs induce in the immune system?
They induce IFN-α/β.
What is the role of the Type I Interferons in bacterial immunology?
They enhance macrophage activation, increasing IFN-γ, nitric oxide (NO), and TNF-α production.
What is the role of NKG2D ligands in bacterial infections?
They are induced on host cells by some bacteria to activate NK cells.
What do NK cells secrete to activate macrophages and dendritic cells?
IFN-γ.
What is the contribution of NK cells in bacterial infections?
They contribute to protection against bacterial infections.
What pathways does the complement system act to kill bacteria?
The complement system acts via alternate or lectin pathways.
What stabilizes the alternate C3 convertase in bacteria?
Bacteria lacking sialic acid stabilize the alternate C3 convertase.
What are the results of the complement system's action on bacteria?
The results include opsonization (C3b, antibodies, mannose-binding lectins) and direct lysis (via terminal complement complexes).
How does lysozyme assist in bacterial killing?
Lysozyme helps terminal complement complexes penetrate bacterial membranes.
What role do antimicrobial peptides play in bacterial defense?
Antimicrobial peptides defend against certain bacteria, such as mycobacteria
How do antimicrobial peptides function in relation to other immune components?
They work synergistically with other innate components.
What is required for successful bacterial invasion regarding the immune system?
Evading or delaying innate immune responses.
What are the major protective mechanisms of adaptive immunity to bacteria?
Neutralization of toxins or enzymes, complement-mediated killing (classical pathway), opsonization leading to phagocytosis and destruction, intracellular killing by activated macrophages, and cytotoxic T cell and NK cell killing.
What is the dual goal of immunity to toxigenic bacteria such as Clostridium spp. and Bacillus anthracis?
To eliminate bacteria and neutralize toxins.
Why is toxin neutralization a priority in toxigenic infections, such as in Clostridial andAnthrax infections?
Once the toxin binds to the receptor, antibody is ineffective.
What is the main defense against invasive bacteria?
Antibodies against surface antigens.
Why are opsonins required for immunity to invasive bacteria?
Opsonins help “mark” bacteria for destruction, and the mains opsonins are Antibodies, C3b, and MBL.
What role do capsular antibodies (K antigens) play in bacterial immunity?
They neutralize antiphagocytic effects.
What is the function of O-antigen antibodies in bacterial infections?
They promote opsonization in non-encapsulated bacteria.
How much more efficient is IgM compared to IgG in opsonization?
IgM is 500-1000 times more efficient than IgG in opsonization.
What is the potency of IgM compared to complement-mediated lysis?
IgM is 100 times more potent than complement-mediated lysis.
What role does early IgM response play in the immune system?
It provides strong initial protection.
What are some examples of intracellular bacterial pathogens?
Brucella abortus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Rhodococcus equi, Listeria monocytogenes, Campylobacter jejuni, Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis.
How do some intracellular bacteria replicate within the host?
Some replicate in macrophages and other like L. monocytogenes spreads cell-to-cell via cytoskeletal protrusions.
What is the role of autophagy in relation to intracellular bacteria?
Autophagy destroys intracellular bacteria using normal organelle degradation machinery and aids in antigen presentation via MHC.
What activates M1 macrophages in the immunity against intracelluar bacteria?
M1 macrophages are activated by IFN-y and TNF-α.
What cytokines do M1 macrophages secrete?
M1 macrophages secrete TNF-a, IL-1ẞ, IL-6, and IL-12.
What substances do M1 macrophages produce to combat intracellular bacteria?
M1 macrophages produce ROS, RNS, IDO, and NOS2.
Why are M1 macrophages essential in the immune response?
They are essential for killing Listeria, Mycobacteria, Chlamydia, and Salmonella.
What bacteria are associated with triggering and overactivation of the immune system?
Streptococcus and E. coli.
When bacteria like Streptococcus or E. coli trigger an overreaction of the immune system, the body releases too many inflammatory molecules. What are the potential consequences of overactivation in bacterial infections?
Sepsis, tissue damage, organ failure, and death.
What is the role of CD4+ Th1 cells in the immune response against bacteria?
They activate macrophages via IFN-γ and TNF-α.
What is the function of CD8+ T cells in the immune response against bacteria?
They lyse infected cells, either MHC class I-dependent or independent.
What is an example of a bacterial infection where CD8+ T cells are involved in killing bacterial infected cells?
R. equi-infected macrophages killed by CD8+ cells.
Which of the following are the mechanisms used by the innate immune system as the first line of defense against bacterial pathogens?
TLRs (Toll-like receptors), Complement system, NK cells, and peptides.
What are the key components of adaptive immunity in bacterial immunology?
Antibodies for neutralization, opsonization, complement, and T helper 1 (Th1) and CD8+ T cells help activate macrophages or kill infected cells.
Why is neutralization of toxins critical in the context of toxigenic bacteria?
Because neutralizing antibodies that bind and block the toxins before they harm cells.
What are some mechanisms bacteria use to evade TLR recognition?
Modification of PAMPs, blocking TLR signaling pathways, destruction of signaling intermediates or NF-кВ, and misdirection of signaling toward anti-inflammatory pathways.
Which bacteria modify their PAMPs to avoid TLR recognition?
Leptospira, Campylobacter, Brucella, Pseudomonas, Yersinia, Staphylococcus, Salmonella.
How does Leptospira evade TLR recognition?
By having LPS recognized by TLR2 instead of TLR4.
What is the mechanism used by Campylobacter jejuni to evade TLR recognition?
Flagellin is not recognized by TLR5.
What does the TcpB protein of Brucella do?
It mimics TLR/IL-1 receptor and degrades adaptor proteins.
How does Pseudomonas aeruginosa impair immune response?
By impairing NF-κB regulation.
What pathways do Yersinia, Shigella, and Anthrax alter to evade immune responses?
They alter MAP kinase pathways.
How does S. aureus resist defensins?
S. aureus uses staphylokinase and aureolysin to neutralize defensins.
What mechanism does Salmonella use to evade defensins?
Salmonella modifies its membrane charge to repel defensins.
How does Klebsiella pneumoniae evade defensins?
Klebsiella pneumoniae has a capsule that blocks ẞ-defensin expression.
What is the role of Protein A in S. aureus's anti-phagocytic mechanism?
Protein A binds the Fc region of IgG, blocking opsonization.
How do encapsulated bacteria like pneumococci prevent phagocytosis?
They have a thick hydrophilic capsule that prevents binding.
What is the function of the streptococcal M protein in complement evasion?
It binds fibrinogen and factor H, inactivating C3b.
How does S. aureus block the complement system?
S. aureus blocks C3 convertase.
What are leukotoxins and which bacteria produce them?
Leukotoxins are toxins that kill specific immune cells. Mannheimia hemolytica kills ruminant neutrophils/macrophages, Moraxella bovis targets bovine neutrophils, Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae affects porcine macrophages, and Mycoplasma mycoides kills bovine T cells.
How do certain bacteria induce apoptosis or necrosis in host cells?
Bacteria such as B. anthracis, Listeria, Shigella, Yersinia, and S. aureus activate apoptotic pathways to induce cell death.
What is the role of Type III secretion systems in bacterial immune evasion?
Type III secretion systems, found in bacteria like Salmonella, E. coli, and Pseudomonas, inject effector molecules into host cells to disrupt signaling and induce cell death.
What is one strategy bacteria use to avoid lysosomal destruction?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis has a waxy cell wall that resists lysosomal enzymes.
How does S. aureus resist lysosomal destruction?
S. aureus has peptidoglycan that is resistant to lysozyme.
What mechanism do S. aureus use to neutralize the respiratory burst?
S. aureus produces catalase and lactate dehydrogenase to resist oxidation.
Which bacteria inhibit NOX activation to neutralize the respiratory burst?
P. multocida and Histophilus somni inhibit NOX activation.
What is the role of anthrax toxins in immune evasion?
Anthrax toxins inhibit NADPH oxidase, which is part of the respiratory burst.
Which bacteria are known to block phagosome-lysosome fusion?
Mycobacteria and Brucella abortus prevent fusion or acidification of phagosomes and lysosomes.
What is antigenic variation and how does it help bacteria evade the immune system?
Antigenic variation involves changing surface antigens to prevent recognition and clearance by the immune system.
How does Campylobacter fetus venerealis utilize antigenic variation?
It undergoes cyclic antigenic variation in the genital tract to evade immune detection.
What is the significance of antigenic variation in Anaplasma marginale?
It leads to cyclical bacteremia with intervals of 6-8 weeks, allowing the bacteria to persist in the host.
What protective role do Th1 cells play against fungal infections?
Th1 cells activate macrophages and enhance epidermal repair and keratinization, essential for eliminating established fungal infections like Aspergillus.
Which cells can directly destroy Cryptococcus neoformans and Candida albicans?
T and NK cells can directly destroy Cryptococcus neoformans and Candida albicans.
What is a potential consequence of recovery from fungal infections?
Recovery often leads to type IV hypersensitivity to fungal antigens.
What is the increased risk associated with immunosuppressed animals, specifically dogs with distemper?
Increased risk of opportunistic fungal infections.
What are the key immune cells involved in the defense against Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
CD4+ T cells and Th17 cells.
What happens to Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia when there is a loss of IL-17 or IL-23?
It worsens the pneumonia.
What role do innate defenses play in fungal clearance?
They initiate fungal clearance through neutrophils, complement, and IL-17.
Which adaptive immune responses are essential for fungal control?
Th1 and Th17 adaptive responses.
What is the consequence of immunosuppression in relation to fungal disease?
It leads to severe opportunistic fungal disease.
How do parasites typically cause disease in hosts?
Parasites rarely cause disease directly; disease is often a result of the host's immune response or accidental tissue damage.
What is a characteristic of well-adapted parasites in relation to their hosts?
Well-adapted parasites coexist with the host with minimal harm.
What type of infections do parasites typically cause?
Chronic and long-lasting infections, unlike bacterial or viral infections.
How do some parasites regulate host immunity?
Parasites often regulate or suppress host immunity to survive.
What are some host cytokines and growth factors that parasites exploit?
Parasites exploit host cytokines and growth factors such as EGF, IFN-γ, IL-2, and GM-CSF.
How does Toxoplasma gondii manipulate its host?
It manipulates rodent behavior to increase transmission to cats, its definitive host.
What effect do EGF and IFN-γ have on Trypanosoma brucei?
EGF and IFN-γ enhance the growth of Trypanosoma brucei.
What role do IL-2 and GM-CSF play in the growth of Leishmania amazonensis?
IL-2 and GM-CSF promote the growth of Leishmania amazonensis.
How does innate immunity to protozoa differ from antibacterial and antiviral defenses?
It is more species-specific.
What is an example of host specificity in relation to T. brucei?
Wild ungulates resist T. brucei; domestic cattle are susceptible.
Which protozoan infects all mammals but only affects cats in its coccidian stages?
Toxoplasma gondii.
What breed of cattle is known for its resistance to trypanosome infection?
N'Dama cattle.
What immune response is associated with the resistance of N'Dama cattle to trypanosome infection?
More responsive γ/δ T cells to trypanosome antigens.
What cytokine levels are higher in trypanotolerant breeds like N'Dama cattle?
Higher IL-4 levels and lower IL-6 production.
What is the significance of a strong IgG response to T. congolense cysteine protease in resistant breeds?
It decreases pathology, leading to less anemia and production loss.
What types of immunity are involved in the adaptive immunity to protozoa?
Both humoral and cell-mediated immunity are involved.
How does humoral immunity contribute to the defense against protozoa?
Humoral immunity opsonizes, agglutinates, and immobilizes parasites, and activates complement and cytotoxic cells.
What is the role of cell-mediated immunity in combating intracellular parasites?
Cell-mediated immunity controls intracellular parasites via Th1 responses and cytotoxic T cells.
What is the immune response to Trichomonas vaginalis?
A local IgE response leads to increased vascular permeability, allowing IgG access for destruction of the parasite.
How does the immune system respond to Babesiosis?
Parasite antigens on infected RBC membranes lead to opsonization and phagocytosis, with antibody-dependent cytotoxicity also contributing through NK cells.
What are the main apicomplexan parasites discussed in relation to cell-mediated immunity?
Toxoplasma, Cryptosporidium, Eimeria, and Neospora.
What type of immune response is critical for protection against apicomplexan parasites?
A protective Th1 response, involving IL-12 and IFN-γ.
How does Toxoplasma gondii invade host cells?
By using 'gliding' motility to avoid phagosome-lysosome fusion.
What structure does Toxoplasma gondii form to protect itself from destruction?
A parasitophorous vacuole.
What role does TLR11 play in the immune response to Toxoplasma gondii?
TLR11 on dendritic cells recognizes profilin, leading to IL-12 and IFN-γ production and activation of the Th1 response.
What is the role of IFN-γ in the effector phase of Toxoplasma gondii immunity?
IFN-γ activates macrophages, leading to lysosome fusion and parasite killing.
What type of T cells are involved in killing infected cells during Toxoplasma gondii infection?
CD8+ T cells.
Why is the cyst (bradyzoite) stage of Toxoplasma gondii considered weakly immunogenic?
Because it allows the parasite to persist in the host.
How do Leishmania, T. cruzi, and T. gondii evade macrophage destruction?
They evade macrophage destruction by blocking phagosome maturation, suppressing oxidant and cytokine production, promoting macrophage apoptosis, and preventing NF-kB nuclear translocation.
What cells are invaded by Theileria parva during infection?
Theileria parva invades T and B cells.
What is the consequence of continuous NF-kB activation in Theileria parva infection?
It prevents apoptosis and promotes an IL-2 autocrine growth loop, leading to lymphocyte proliferation and severe disease.
What immune response mechanism is involved in the destruction of infected lymphocytes during Theileria parva infection?
CD8+ T cells destroy infected lymphocytes in an MHC I-dependent manner.
What immune cells are involved in the primary infection of Eimeria?
CD4+ T cells, IL-12, IFN-γ, macrophages, NK cells.
Which immune cells are critical during a secondary infection of Eimeria?
CD8+ T cells.
What cytokines contribute to protection in chickens against Eimeria?
IFN-γ, TNF-α, TGF-β, and intraepithelial CD8+ T cells.
What effect does IL-10 have in susceptible birds regarding Eimeria infection?
It increases IL-10 levels, leading to a Th2 bias and decreased resistance.
What is premunition in the context of babesiosis?
Immunity maintained while the parasite persists at low levels.
How does a cow cured of Babesia respond to a homologous strain?
It remains resistant to the homologous strain.
What role does the spleen play in the immune response to Babesia?
It produces antibodies and removes infected RBCs, while splenic macrophages trigger a Th1 response and produce NO.
What happens if a cow undergoes splenectomy in relation to Babesia?
It may relapse due to NO deficiency.
What causes canine leishmaniasis?
It is caused by Leishmania infantum (L. chagasi) and transmitted by sandflies.
What happens to promastigotes after they are phagocytosed by neutrophils and macrophages?
They develop into amastigotes and release from macrophages.
What are the outcomes of canine leishmaniasis based on the dog's immunity?
Resistant dogs experience cutaneous/mild infection, while susceptible dogs develop visceral leishmaniasis.
How does Leishmania multiply within macrophages?
Leishmania multiply within macrophage phagolysosomes.
What role does Lipophosphoglycan (LPG) play in Leishmania infection?
LPG delays phagosome maturation, suppresses NO and cytokine production, and reduces MHC class II expression, impairing antigen presentation.
What immune response is observed in resistant dogs infected with Leishmania?
Resistant dogs exhibit low antibodies, increased IFN-γ, strong delayed hypersensitivity, and granulomas leading to parasite clearance.
What characterizes the immune response in susceptible dogs to Leishmania?
Susceptible dogs show high antibodies and weak cell-mediated immunity, with IL-10-producing Tregs suppressing IL-12, leading to chronic disease.
What role do IL-10-producing Tregs play in the immune response to Leishmania in susceptible dogs?
They suppress IL-12, contributing to chronic disease.
What genetic factors are linked to the immune response in dogs to Leishmania?
MHC II and Slc11a1 (Nramp) alleles are genetically linked to the immune response.
How does T. gondii evade the immune system?
By avoiding neutrophil attachment and phagocytosis.
What is the mechanism by which T. parva affects the immune system?
It kills T cells, destroying immune cells.
Which protozoa are known for causing immunosuppression?
Babesia bovis, Trypanosoma spp., Plasmodium falciparum.
How do T. theileri and T. lewisi evade the immune response?
By masking themselves with host antigens.
What is antigenic variation and which protozoa exhibit this mechanism?
Antigenic variation is a strategy to evade the immune response, exhibited by T. brucei, B. bovis, and Giardia.
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with Trichomonas vaginalis?
Type I hypersensitivity, causing local allergic inflammation.
What is the consequence of Type II hypersensitivity related to protozoa?
Red blood cell destruction leading to anemia, associated with Babesia and Trypanosoma.
Which protozoa are involved in Type III hypersensitivity reactions and what is the mechanism?
Leishmania and Trypanosoma cause immune complex deposition leading to vasculitis and glomerulonephritis.
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Toxoplasma gondii and what does it cause?
Type IV hypersensitivity, causing hypersensitivity reactions at cyst rupture sites.
What types of immune responses do protozoans elicit?
Both humoral and cellular responses.
Which cytokines are critical for controlling intracellular parasites?
Th1 cytokines, specifically IL-12 and IFN-gamma.
What are some strategies parasites use for immune evasion?
Suppression, masking, and antigenic variation.
What can immune responses to protozoa cause in the host?
Pathology such as hypersensitivity and autoimmunity.
What determines the disease outcome in host-parasite interactions?
The balance between host survival and parasite persistence.
What is the main focus of bacterial immunity in immunology?
Innate & Adaptive immunity, Toxigenic, Invasive, and Intracellular bacteria
How does an antibody neutralize a toxin from bacteria?
Antibody neutralizes toxin by blocking receptor binding.
What are some of the challenges in toxigenic infections?
Necrotic tissue may shield bacteria from immune attack and ineffective antibodies by toxin-receptor binding.
Besides marking pathogens, what are other direct antimicrobial roles of antibodies in the adaptive immunity against bacteria?
Bacteriostatic (blocking iron scavenging), bactericidal (damaging surface proteins), and generate oxidants to kill bacteria directly.