How can you determine the osmotic resistance of red blood cells in the lab?
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To determine osmotic resistance, use centrifuge tubes marked with NaCl concentrations, add blood, incubate, and centrifuge. Clear supernatant indicates no hemolysis, while reddish supernatant indicates hemolysis.
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How can you determine the osmotic resistance of red blood cells in the lab?
To determine osmotic resistance, use centrifuge tubes marked with NaCl concentrations, add blood, incubate, and centrifuge. Clear supernatant indicates no hemolysis, while reddish supernatant indicates hemolysis.
What is the osmotic resistance of blood related to in terms of NaCl concentration?
The osmotic resistance of blood equals the NaCl concentration of the most diluted solution with a clear supernatant and red precipitate. The concentration of the most concentrated solution without a red precipitate indicates the limit of complete hemolysis.
How do myogenic lesions differ from neurogenic lesions in terms of EMG findings?
In myogenic lesions, the amplitude of the motor unit potential and maximal contraction is smaller than normal, with no resting/spontaneous activity (isoelectric line during relaxation). Complete interference is present but with small amplitude.
What does a large amplitude with no complete interference during maximal contraction indicate?
A large amplitude with no complete interference during maximal contraction indicates a neurogenic lesion.
What is the resting activity in the case of a neurogenic lesion?
In a neurogenic lesion, there is spontaneous activity characterized by fibrillation and fasciculation, leading to increased size of motor units over time due to regeneration, resulting in larger motor potentials (amplitude and duration).
How does the insertional activity differ between normal, neurogenic, and myogenic lesions?
Insertional activity is normal in healthy muscle, increased in neurogenic lesions, and normal in myogenic lesions, but can also be increased in cases of myopathy or polymyositis.
What is the spontaneous activity observed in neurogenic and myogenic lesions?
In neurogenic lesions, spontaneous activity includes fibrillation and positive waves. In myogenic lesions, spontaneous activity can also include fibrillation and positive waves, but it is less common.
What changes occur in motor unit potentials in neurogenic and myogenic lesions?
In neurogenic lesions, motor unit potentials are large with limited recruitment. In myogenic lesions, motor unit potentials are small with early recruitment.
What is the interference pattern in normal, neurogenic, and myogenic lesions?
In normal conditions, the interference pattern is full. In neurogenic lesions, it is reduced with a fast firing rate, while in myogenic lesions, it is reduced with a slow firing rate, and both can show full low amplitude patterns.
What are the main structural characteristics of smooth muscle cells?
Smooth muscle cells are 1-5 um in diameter and 20-500 um in length. They are composed of myocytes, which are thin elongated cells with a single nucleus, containing organelles like mitochondria and filaments (actin and myosin). The arrangement of actin and myosin filaments differs from that in skeletal muscle, with actin filaments attached to dense bodies, which serve a similar role to Z-disks in skeletal muscle.
What are the two types of smooth muscle based on intercellular connections?
The two types of smooth muscle are:
Multi-unit smooth muscle:
Single-unit smooth muscle:
How does the contraction capability of smooth muscle compare to that of skeletal muscle?
Smooth muscle can contract as much as 80 percent of its length, while skeletal muscle can only contract about 30 percent of its length. This is due to the unique arrangement of actin and myosin filaments in smooth muscle, allowing for more extensive contraction.
What initiates contraction in smooth muscle instead of troponin?
Smooth muscle contraction is initiated by calmodulin, which binds calcium ions and activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).
How does the source of calcium ions for contraction differ between smooth and skeletal muscle?
In smooth muscle, most calcium ions needed for contraction come from the extracellular space, while in skeletal muscle, calcium ions are primarily produced by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
What is the ratio of actin to myosin in smooth muscle compared to skeletal muscle?
The ratio of actin to myosin in smooth muscle is 15/1, whereas in skeletal muscle it is 2/1.
What role do neurotransmitters play in smooth muscle contraction?
Neurotransmitters from vegetative nerves can cause smooth muscle contraction by being released into the interstitial fluid and acting on the muscle fibers.
What are the two types of action potentials in smooth muscle?
The two types of action potentials in smooth muscle are those with a plateau phase (e.g., arteries) and those without a plateau phase (e.g., antrum pyloricum).
How do glial cells contribute to the function of neurons?
Glial cells contribute to the function of neurons by:
What is the significance of the nodes of Ranvier in myelinated fibers?
The nodes of Ranvier are significant in myelinated fibers because they allow for saltatory conduction, where excitation spreads rapidly from one node to the next, resulting in higher conduction velocity. The nodes contain rapid Na+ channels, while the membrane under the myelin sheath contains mostly rapid K+ channels.
What is the relationship between myelination and conduction velocity in neurons?
Myelination increases conduction velocity in neurons because it allows for saltatory conduction, where action potentials jump from one node of Ranvier to another, leading to faster transmission of electrical impulses compared to unmyelinated fibers.
What is the name of the cell that forms the myelin sheath in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes.
Where is the fast voltage gated calcium channels located in the neuron?
Axon hillock.
Where is the action potential generated in a neuron?
From the axon hillock.
What are the properties of myelinated versus unmyelinated fibers?
| Property | Myelinated Fibers | Unmyelinated Fibers (Type IV, C-fibers) |
|---|---|---|
| Membrane Resistance | Higher | Lower |
| Membrane Capacity | Lower | Higher |
| Space Constant | Longer | Shorter |
| Time Constant | Shorter | Longer |
| Excitability | Higher | Lower |
| Threshold | Lower | Higher |
| Conduction Velocity | Higher | Lower |
| Refractory Period | Shorter | Longer |
| Firing Rate | Higher | Lower |
| Chronaxia | Shorter | Longer |
What are the characteristics of rapid voltage gated Na⁺-channels?
The rapid voltage gated Na⁺-channels have 2 gates: an activation gate (faster) and an inactivation gate (slower). Ion flow occurs only if both gates are opened. The activation gate is closed during resting potential and opens rapidly by depolarization when the threshold is reached. The inactivation gate is closed by depolarization.
What is the role of the sodium-potassium ATPase in maintaining resting membrane potential?
The sodium-potassium ATPase pumps 3 Na+ ions out of the cell and 2 K+ ions in at the cost of one ATP, maintaining the concentration gradient necessary for resting membrane potential.
What are the differences between action potentials (AP) and postsynaptic potentials (EPSP, IPSP)?
| Feature | Action Potential (AP) | Postsynaptic Potential (EPSP, IPSP) |
|---|---|---|
| Fast voltage gated Na+ channels | Required | Not required |
| Refractory period | Present | Absent |
| Inhibition by TTX | Yes | No |
| Energy requirement | High | Less energy needed |
| Amplitude behavior | Constant amplitude | Decreases with time and distance |
What are the types of postsynaptic potentials and their effects on the neuron?
There are two types of postsynaptic potentials:
What is the end plate potential (EPP) and its significance in muscle contraction?
The end plate potential (EPP) is a depolarization of skeletal muscle fibers caused by neurotransmitters binding to the postsynaptic membrane at the neuromuscular junction. One EPP is sufficient to cause contraction in the post-synaptic skeletal muscle cell, unlike one EPSP which is not enough to trigger an action potential.
What generates an action potential in neurons?
Action potential is generated by voltage-gated ion channels that change the membrane potential without significantly altering ion concentrations.
What is the all or none law in relation to action potentials?
The all or none law states that if an action potential occurs, it is propagated to every part of the membrane, and its amplitude does not change with increasing stimulus intensity.
How can fast voltage-gated sodium channels be blocked?
Fast voltage-gated sodium channels can be blocked by local anesthetic drugs such as lidocaine and tetrodotoxin (TTX).
Where are fast voltage-gated potassium channels located in myelinated neurons?
Fast voltage-gated potassium channels are located everywhere under the myelin sheath.
How can voltage-gated potassium channels be inhibited?
Voltage-gated potassium channels can be inhibited by tetraethylammonium (TEA).
How is the resting membrane potential of a neuron maintained?
The resting membrane potential of a neuron is maintained by the Na+/K+-ATPase, which pumps 3 Na+ ions in and 2 K+ ions out.
Which ion channels open below the threshold in a neuron?
Ligand-gated ion channels open below the threshold in a neuron.
Name two excitatory and two inhibitory neurotransmitters.
Excitatory neurotransmitters: Glutamate, Aspartate Inhibitory neurotransmitters: GABA, Glycine
In an excitatory synapse, which ions are involved in the inflow/outflow?
In an excitatory synapse, the membrane becomes less negative due to the inflow of sodium and/or calcium ions, resulting in an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).
In an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP), which ions are involved in the inflow/outflow?
In an IPSP, the membrane becomes more negative due to the outflow of potassium (K+) and the inflow of chloride (Cl-) ions.
What is the equilibrium potential of sodium (Na+)?
+55mV
At which membrane potential does an outward electrical gradient for sodium occur?
Positive membrane potential
If the membrane potential is set to +70 mV, what will happen to sodium flow?
There will be an outflow of sodium to decrease the membrane potential.
If the membrane potential is set to +30 mV, what will happen to sodium flow?
There will be an inflow of sodium.
If the membrane potential is set to 0 mV, what will happen to sodium flow?
There will be an inflow of sodium.
If the membrane potential is set to -60 mV, what will happen to sodium flow?
There will be an inflow of sodium.
At which membrane potential will there be the strongest sodium inflow: 0 mV, -60 mV, -70 mV, or -120 mV?
-120 mV will have the strongest sodium inflow.
If the membrane potential is set to +55 mV, what will happen to sodium flow?
Net sodium flow will be 0.
What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle?
The functional unit of skeletal muscle is the muscle fibre, which varies in length depending on the specific muscle.
What are the characteristics of A-alpha motoneurons?
A-alpha motoneurons have the following characteristics:
What is a motor unit?
A motor unit consists of a motoneuron and all the muscle fibres it innervates. Each muscle fibre is innervated by only one motoneuron, while one motoneuron can innervate numerous muscle fibres (10-1000).
What is the innervation ratio and how does it vary among different muscles?
The innervation ratio is the number of muscle fibres innervated by a single motoneuron. It varies depending on the muscle type:
What is the motor unit potential?
The motor unit potential is the sum of action potentials from one motor unit.
Can a muscle fibre be innervated by more than one motoneuron?
No, a muscle fibre is only innervated by one motoneuron.
What is the role of voltage-gated calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction?
Voltage-gated calcium channels open when the action potential reaches the axon terminal, allowing calcium ions to flow into the terminal. This influx of calcium is crucial for the release of neurotransmitters from vesicles into the neuromuscular junction.
How does the action potential travel in a myelinated axon?
The action potential travels in a saltatory manner, jumping from one node of Ranvier to the next, which increases the conduction velocity of the action potential.
What triggers the release of neurotransmitters at the neuromuscular junction?
The release of neurotransmitters is triggered by the influx of calcium ions into the axon terminal, which occurs when voltage-gated calcium channels open in response to the action potential.
What is the significance of the electrochemical gradient for calcium ions at the neuromuscular junction?
The electrochemical gradient causes calcium ions to flow into the axon terminal because the concentration of calcium is lower inside the terminal compared to the extracellular space, facilitating neurotransmitter release.
What is the role of acetylcholine in skeletal muscle contraction?
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that binds to muscle type nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, which are ligand-gated ion channels. This binding opens sodium channels, allowing sodium to flow into the muscle cell, leading to depolarization.
What is the resting membrane potential (RMP) of skeletal muscle?
The resting membrane potential of skeletal muscle is normally -90 mV.
How does the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump contribute to the resting membrane potential?
The sodium-potassium-ATPase pump maintains the resting membrane potential by pumping out 3 Na+ ions and bringing in 2 K+ ions, which helps keep the inside of the cell more negative compared to the outside.
What happens during depolarization in skeletal muscle?
During depolarization, the membrane potential becomes less negative, and if the end plate potential reaches the threshold, voltage-gated sodium channels open, causing a rapid influx of sodium and the generation of an action potential.
What is hyperpolarization in the context of membrane potential?
Hyperpolarization occurs when the membrane potential becomes more negative than the resting membrane potential, following repolarization after an action potential.
What is the name of the T-tubule and the Terminal cisternae together?
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
What is the main function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
The main function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum is to store and release calcium ions (Ca++) which are essential for muscle contraction.
Where are the DHP (Dihydropyridine) receptors situated and what is their function?
DHP receptors are situated in the wall of the T-tubule. Their function is to activate ryanodine receptors.
Where are the ryanodine receptors located and what is their function?
Ryanodine receptors are located in the wall of the terminal cisternae. Their function is to release calcium.
Is the space inside the T-tubule intracellular or extracellular?
The space inside the T-tubule is extracellular.
Is the calcium source for muscle contraction in skeletal muscle intracellular or extracellular?
The calcium source for muscle contraction in skeletal muscle is intracellular, coming from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which is inside the cell.
How many calcium ions can bind to one molecule of troponin C?
One molecule of troponin C can bind to 4 calcium ions.
What is the optimal length of a sarcomere for maximal contraction force?
The optimal length of a sarcomere to exert the maximal contraction force is between 2-2.2 micrometers (um).
What are the components of thin filaments in a sarcomere?
The thin filaments in a sarcomere consist of:
What is the function of titin in a sarcomere?
Titin connects the Z-line to the myosin and back, anchoring the myosin to the Z-line, and is as long as the sarcomere itself.
What does the A-band in a sarcomere contain?
The A-band is as long as the myosin itself and contains both thick and thin filaments.
What is the H-band in a sarcomere?
The H-band is the length between the two actin molecules and contains only thick filaments.
What does the I-band in a sarcomere contain?
The I-band extends from the end of one myosin to the next and contains only thin filaments.
Do we have DHP receptors in the heart?
Yes, DHP receptors are present in the heart.
Do we have ryanodine receptors in the heart?
Yes, ryanodine receptors are present in the heart.
How long is nebulin and what is its function?
Nebulin is as long as the actin filament and functions to support it.
Which bands get shorter during muscle contraction?
The H-band and I-band get shorter during contraction.
What happens during muscle relaxation regarding calcium signals?
During relaxation, there are no calcium signals, and ATP is needed to relax the muscle.
What is the role of the calcium-ATPase during muscle relaxation?
The calcium-ATPase pumps calcium back from the myoplasm to the sarcoplasmic reticulum during relaxation.
What occupies the myosin binding site on the actin filament during muscle relaxation?
The troponin-tropomyosin complex occupies the myosin binding site on the actin filament during relaxation.
What are the components of the troponin-tropomyosin complex?
The troponin-tropomyosin complex consists of Tropomyosin, Troponin I (inhibits), Troponin C (binds to calcium), and Troponin T.
What is required for muscle activation during contraction?
Both ATP and calcium are required for muscle activation during contraction.
What happens when troponin C binds to calcium?
When troponin C binds to calcium, it changes conformation, which also alters the conformation of the troponin-tropomyosin complex.
What is the angle between the myosin head and neck during muscle contraction and relaxation?
During muscle contraction, the angle between the myosin head and the myosin neck is 45°, while during relaxation it is 90°.
How does the myosin head contribute to muscle contraction?
The myosin head binds to the actin site and tilts from 90° to 45°, allowing it to slide towards the Z-line and bind to the next actin, facilitating contraction.
How does the action potential in a neuron lead to muscle contraction?
The action potential reaches the axon terminal, opening voltage-gated calcium channels, leading to calcium inflow, neurotransmitter release (acetylcholine), and subsequent muscle cell depolarization and contraction.
What role do DHP receptors play in muscle contraction?
DHP receptors in the T-tubules are triggered by the action potential, which then activates ryanodine receptors to release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm, initiating contraction.
What is the sliding filament mechanism?
The sliding filament mechanism occurs when the angle between the myosin head and neck changes, allowing myosin to bind to actin and slide, resulting in muscle contraction.
Is the amplitude of contraction higher in skeletal muscle or smooth muscle?
The amplitude of contraction is higher in smooth muscle, as seen in the uterus's ability to contract back after childbirth.
What is muscle fatigue and its significance?
Muscle fatigue is a reversible decrease in the ability of skeletal muscle to exert force in response to physical activity. Its significance is to protect the body from complete or final depletion.
What are the types of muscle fatigue?
The types of muscle fatigue are:
What are the causes of peripheral fatigue?
The causes of peripheral fatigue include:
In what order does the muscle use energy sources during activity?
The order in which muscle uses energy sources is:
What happens to the muscle when there is no ATP?
When there is no ATP, the muscle cannot contract or relax, leading to a condition known as 'Rigor Mortis', where the muscle becomes stiff.
What are the characteristics of Type I-A muscle fibers?
Type I-A muscle fibers are red fibers caused by myoglobin, are slow-twitch, utilize aerobic glycolysis, show muscle fatigue later, are antigravitational muscles, have lots of mitochondria, and are typically used by marathon runners.
What are the characteristics of Type II-B muscle fibers?
Type II-B muscle fibers are white fibers caused by glycogen, are fast-twitch, utilize anaerobic glycolysis, show muscle fatigue early, produce more lactate, and are typically used by 100m sprinters and weightlifters.
What is the effect of regular muscle workouts on muscle fibers?
Regular muscle workouts do not increase the number of muscle fibers; instead, they lead to an increase in size known as hypertrophy.
What are the effects of training on muscle?
The effects of training on muscle include:
What causes muscle strain?
Muscle strain is caused by microtrauma, which leads to sterile inflammation in the muscle.
What does EMG stand for and what does it record?
EMG stands for electrical myography and it records the electrical activity of skeletal muscle.
What are the differences between surface and deep electrodes in EMG?
The differences between surface and deep electrodes in EMG are:
| Type of Electrode | Risk of Infection | Precision |
|---|---|---|
| Surface | Low | Less precise |
| Deep | High | More precise |
What is the role of the transducer in EMG recordings?
The transducer converts the mechanical signal into an electrical signal.
What does the amplifier do in EMG recordings?
The amplifier increases the amplitude of the electrical signal.
How does the filter function in EMG recordings?
The filter removes parts of the noise; for example, to examine signals between 0.5Hz and 50Hz, a 0.5Hz high pass filter and a 50Hz low pass filter are used.
What is the minimum stimulus threshold?
The minimum stimulus threshold is the single pulse with the lowest intensity that can induce a single twitch.
What is the maximal recruitment threshold?
The maximal recruitment threshold is the stimulus intensity above which the amplitude of the contraction force stops increasing.
What occurs if a second action potential arrives before the muscle is fully relaxed?
If a second action potential arrives before the muscle is fully relaxed, the force of the next contraction will be greater, a phenomenon known as summation or superposition.
What happens when the stimulus frequency is increased and the muscle does not fully relax?
When the stimulus frequency is increased and the muscle does not fully relax, the individual twitches will fuse into a single sustained contraction. If the twitches are still recognizable, it is called incomplete tetanus; if they fuse completely, it is called complete tetanus.
What is myasthenia gravis and how does it affect skeletal muscles?
Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles due to the production of antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (N-Ach-R) at the neuromuscular junction.
What causes malignant hyperthermia and what are its effects during surgery?
Malignant hyperthermia is caused by a mutation of the ryanodine receptors, leading to a severe reaction to certain anesthetic drugs. This reaction causes muscle activation and an increase in body temperature (hyperthermia), making temperature monitoring during surgery crucial.
What is the main treatment for malignant hyperthermia during surgery?
The main treatment for malignant hyperthermia is the administration of dantrolene. Anesthesiologists give this drug immediately if malignant hyperthermia is suspected, stop the anesthetic, and the surgeon ends the surgery as soon as possible.
What are the characteristics of neurogenic lesions in EMG examinations?
In neurogenic lesions, there is spontaneous activation of the muscle even when the patient is asked to relax, resulting in EMG signals. The motor unit potential is larger than normal, and there is no complete interference.
What are the phases of smooth muscle contraction?
What is the difference between tonic and phasic contraction of smooth muscle?
What is the source of Ca2+ in smooth muscle contraction?
Ca2+ is sourced both intracellularly and extracellularly during smooth muscle contraction.
What type of innervation do smooth muscles receive?
Smooth muscles are innervated by the autonomic nervous system, which is involuntary.
What is the resting membrane potential of smooth muscle?
The resting membrane potential of smooth muscle ranges from -40 mV to -70 mV, which is considered unstable.
How does the duration of action potential in smooth muscle compare to that in skeletal muscle?
The duration of action potential in smooth muscle is longer compared to that in skeletal muscle, lasting approximately 25 times longer.
What channels are important in the contraction of smooth muscle?
What is the supporting structure of actin in smooth muscle?
Dens plaque
What is the phosphate source in smooth muscle?
ATP
What is the function of calmodulin in smooth muscle contraction?
Activate MCL (myosin light chain) kinase
Can you receive signals from both the agonist and antagonist muscle at the same time?
Yes, both muscles are working simultaneously.
What are the long-term effects of muscle training on the human body?
What is the function of troponin I and troponin C?
Is the calcium signal in skeletal muscle intracellular or extracellular?
Intracellular
Can skeletal muscle be tetanized?
Yes
What is the optimal length of a sarcomere for maximal contraction force?
2-2.2 um
How long is the titin compared to the sarcomere?
The titin is as long as the sarcomere.
How long is the nebulin compared to the actin?
The nebulin is as long as the actin.
What does the A-band contain?
Both thick and thin filaments.
What does the I-band contain?
Thin filaments.
What does the H-band contain?
Thick filaments.
How does curare affect the membrane potential of skeletal muscle?
Curare is a non-depolarisation muscle relaxer; it doesn't change the membrane potential, it only inhibits the nicotinic Ach receptors.
Is the effect of curare reversible or irreversible?
Reversible
What is the difference between direct and indirect stimulation of a muscle?
Direct: stimulate the muscle directly; Indirect: stimulate the nerve that stimulates the muscle.
In a nerve-muscle preparation in curare solution, when will there be a contraction if stimulated directly and indirectly?
There will be a contraction only when stimulated directly, as curare inhibits the receptors on the muscle membrane for indirect stimulation.
What does curare inhibit in muscle stimulation?
Curare inhibits the nicotinic acetylcholine (Ach) receptors on the muscle during both direct and indirect stimulation.
What happens to the amplitude of muscle contraction when stimulus intensity is increased beyond the maximal threshold?
When the maximal threshold is reached, the maximal recruitment of muscle fibers is also reached, and the amplitude of the contraction cannot increase further.
What equipment is used to measure muscle contraction when stimulating the ulnar nerve?
The equipment used includes:
What is a primary reason for the decrease in grip force during muscle strength measurement?
The grip force decreases due to muscle fatigue.
What factors can influence muscle fatigue?
Factors that can influence muscle fatigue include:
During exercise, which blood pressure component primarily increases, systolic or diastolic?
During exercise, the systolic pressure primarily increases as more blood needs to be pumped out of the heart.
Which types of cells have membrane potential and which can generate action potential?
All living cells have membrane potential, but only excitable cells like skeletal, neural, and cardiac cells can generate action potential.
What percentage of an adult human's body weight is fluid?
About 60% of the body weight of an adult human is fluid.
What are the two main types of body fluids and their proportions?
The two main types of body fluids are intracellular fluid (2/3 of body water) and extracellular fluid (1/3 of body water).
What ions are predominantly found in extracellular fluid?
The extracellular fluid contains a large amount of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate, and nutrients such as oxygen, glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids.
What ions are predominantly found in intracellular fluid?
The intracellular fluid contains a large amount of potassium, magnesium, and phosphate ions.
What is the total body water (TBW) of an average man weighing 70kg?
The total body water (TBW) of an average man weighing 70kg is 42kg.
What are the normal concentration ranges for sodium ions in extracellular fluid?
The normal concentration range for sodium ions (Na+) in extracellular fluid is 135-152 mmol/L.
What are the normal concentration ranges for potassium ions in extracellular fluid?
The normal concentration range for potassium ions (K+) in extracellular fluid is 3.8-5.2 mmol/L.
What methods can be used to measure fluid volumes?
Fluid volumes can be measured using different dilution methods.
How can total body water be measured?
Total body water can be measured using heavy water (D₂O), tritium oxide (T₂O), or antipyrine. These substances are injected into the body, spread throughout body fluids, and their concentration is measured through a blood test after a certain period.
What methods can be used to measure extracellular fluid?
Extracellular fluid can be measured using the inulin dilution method or Mannitol. Inulin can enter interstitial and intravascular fluids but not intracellular fluid, allowing for the measurement of only extracellular fluid.
What is hypernatremia and hyponatremia?
Hypernatremia refers to too high concentrations of sodium in the extracellular space, while hyponatremia refers to too low concentrations of sodium in the extracellular space.
What is hyperkalaemia and what can it cause?
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where potassium concentration in the extracellular space is higher than normal values. It can cause irregular heart rhythm or even stop the heart.
What is hypokalaemia and why is it dangerous?
Hypokalaemia refers to too low levels of potassium in the extracellular space. It is dangerous because it can lead to arrhythmias.
Where is the concentration of calcium (Ca2+) higher, in the intracellular space or extracellular space?
The concentration of calcium (Ca2+) is higher in the intracellular space.
What does hypomagnesia mean and what can it cause?
Hypomagnesia means too little magnesium in the extracellular space, which can cause an irregular heart rate.
What are the dominant ions in extracellular and intracellular spaces?
The dominant ion in the extracellular space is sodium (Na+), while the dominant ion in the intracellular space is potassium (K+).
What is the formula to measure plasma volume?
Plasma volume = blood volume * (1 – Htc)
What are the main components of blood plasma?
Blood plasma consists of more than 90% water, along with inorganic and organic elements.
What is blood serum?
Blood serum is the blood plasma without the fibrinogen.
What are the functions of plasma proteins?
What are the types of immunoglobulins and their functions?
| Immunoglobulin | Function |
|---|---|
| IgA | For mucosal defense |
| IgD | On surface of B-lymphocytes |
| IgE | High in case of allergic reactions |
| IgM | Large molecules, cannot pass placenta, antibodies of A-B-O blood type system |
| IgG | Small molecules, can pass through placenta, antibodies in Rh-blood-type system |
What is the normal range of erythrocytes (RBC) in females and males?
What stimulates the kidney to produce erythropoietin (EPO)?
Hypoxia, or lack of oxygen, stimulates the kidney to produce erythropoietin (EPO).
What is the lifespan of erythrocytes (RBCs)?
The lifespan of erythrocytes (RBCs) is 100-120 days.
What are the potential causes of low and high RBC counts?
What materials are used in the lab for red blood cell counting?
The materials used include:
How is the reticulocyte count determined in the lab?
The reticulocyte count is determined using the stain Brilliant cresyl blue.
How are reticulocytes related to erythropoiesis?
The ratio of reticulocytes to mature RBCs reflects the activity of erythropoiesis.
What is the size in diameter of erythrocytes (RBCs)?
The size in diameter of erythrocytes (RBCs) is 7-8 µm.
What is the process of RBC release from the red bone marrow?
RBCs are released from the red bone marrow as reticulocytes, which are immature red blood cells.
What is the formula to calculate the RBC count using the Bürker's chamber?
RBC count = average number of RBCs × volume of square × dilution. For example, if the average number of RBCs is 10, the calculation would be: RBC count = 10 x 4000 x 100 = 4,000,000.
What are the steps to determine the reticulocyte count?
What is the normal range of reticulocytes in the blood?
The normal range of reticulocytes is 0.7-1.5% of the total RBCs.
What can cause low and high reticulocyte counts?
Low reticulocyte counts can be caused by decreased erythropoiesis. High reticulocyte counts may indicate an increased rate of RBC production in the bone marrow, a compensatory process, or a sign of bone marrow tumors producing excess RBCs.
What materials are needed to measure the mean size of RBCs and what are the steps involved?
Materials needed: 0.9% NaCl solution, glass slide, coverslip, microscope with an eyepiece graticule, immersion oil, calibration slide, and capillary venous sample.
Steps:
What is the significance of the Price Jones curve in relation to red blood cells (RBCs)?
The Price Jones curve illustrates the distribution of RBC sizes, showing a symmetric Gaussian curve with a peak at the mean diameter of normal RBCs (7-8 µm). It helps in understanding variations in RBC sizes, such as microcytosis (smaller RBCs) and macrocytosis (larger RBCs).
What happens to hemoglobin during the degradation of red blood cells?
During RBC degradation, hemoglobin is released when the cell membrane ruptures. It is then phagocytized by tissue macrophages, where it splits into heme and globin. The heme is further processed to release free iron, which is recycled, while the globin is broken down into amino acids.
How is indirect bilirubin transported in the blood?
Indirect bilirubin is water insoluble and is transported in the blood by strongly binding to albumin, a water-soluble plasma protein, which allows it to circulate throughout the bloodstream.
Where does the degradation of red blood cells primarily occur?
The degradation of red blood cells primarily occurs in the reticuloendothelial system of the spleen, where macrophages phagocytize the aged RBCs and process hemoglobin.
What is the process of converting indirect bilirubin to conjugated bilirubin?
Indirect bilirubin is absorbed through the hepatic cell membrane in the liver, where it is converted into conjugated bilirubin (active bilirubin), which is then exported to the bile canaliculi and into the intestines.
What is the initial step in bilirubin metabolism after the breakdown of fragile red blood cells?
The initial step is the conversion of fragile red blood cells into heme by the reticuloendothelial system.
What is the role of the liver in bilirubin metabolism?
In the liver, unconjugated bilirubin is converted into conjugated bilirubin.
What are the two pathways that bilirubin can follow after being processed in the liver?
The two pathways are:
What happens to urobilinogen in the kidneys?
In the kidneys, urobilinogen can be oxidized into urobilin and then excreted in the urine.
What is hematocrit and how is it defined?
Hematocrit is the volume proportion of the formed elements in the blood, specifically the ratio of the volume of blood cells to the volume of whole blood.
What factors influence hematocrit levels?
Hematocrit levels depend on several factors including:
What are the normal hematocrit values for males and females?
Normal values of hematocrit (Htc) are:
What cells contribute to the hematocrit and their respective percentages?
The cells contributing to the hematocrit are:
What is the method used to determine hematocrit in the lab?
To determine hematocrit:
What does MCV stand for and what does it indicate?
MCV stands for mean corpuscular volume and indicates the average size of one red blood cell.
What are the normal ranges for MCV, and what do macrocytosis and microcytosis indicate?
The normal range for MCV is 82-92 fl. Macrocytosis indicates RBC size higher than 94 fl, while microcytosis indicates RBC size lower than 80 fl.
What does MCH stand for and what does it measure?
MCH stands for mean corpuscular hemoglobin and measures the average amount of hemoglobin present in a single red blood cell.
What are the normal values for MCH, and what conditions are associated with high and low values?
The normal value for MCH is between 28-36 pg. Higher values indicate macrocytic anemia, while lower values indicate microcytic anemia.
What can cause microcytic anemia?
Microcytic anemia can be caused by iron deficiency.
What are the causes of macrocytic anemia?
Macrocytic anemia can be caused by:
What does MCHC stand for and what does it indicate?
MCHC stands for mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration and indicates the average concentration of hemoglobin in 1L of red blood cells.
What are the normal values for MCHC and what does a lack of hemoglobin indicate?
The normal values for MCHC are 310-360 g/L (adults). A lack of hemoglobin in the blood may indicate anemia.
What is the mnemonic used to remember the different types of leukocytes?
The mnemonic is 'Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas'.
What are the main functions of neutrophils?
Neutrophils are the largest fraction of white blood cells and are primarily involved in fighting bacterial infections. A high number of young neutrophils (left shift) can indicate a bacterial infection.
What roles do T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes play in the immune response?
T-lymphocytes are involved in the cellular immune response, fighting against other cells, while B-lymphocytes produce antibodies (immunoglobulins) for the humoral immune response.
What is the significance of monocytes in the immune system?
Monocytes are the largest white blood cells and can leave the bloodstream to become macrophages in tissues, where they are involved in antigen presentation.
What is the primary function of eosinophils?
Eosinophils fight against parasitic infections and allergic reactions, and they also regulate basophil granulocytes.
What do basophil granulocytes produce and what is their role in the immune response?
Basophil granulocytes produce histamine and their numbers can increase in response to exogenic parasite infections or allergies.
What staining is used for differential leukocyte counting in a blood smear film and how long is it stained?
The blood smear film is stained using diluted May-Grunwald staining for 3 minutes, followed by a mixture of deionised water and May-Grunwald solution for 1-3 minutes, and finally with deionised water and Giemsa solution for 10-15 minutes.
What staining is used for white blood cell counting and what is the rate of dilution of the blood sample?
Türk's solution is used for white blood cell counting, and the rate of dilution of the blood sample is 1:10.
What square of the Bürker's chamber is used for leukocyte count?
The large square of the Bürker's chamber is used for leukocyte count.
How is the WBC count calculated if the average number of lymphocytes in each large square is 4?
WBC count is calculated using the formula:
WBC count = Average WBCs x volume of square x dilution
For this case: WBC count = 4 x 250 x 10 = 10,000.
If 40% of the white blood cells are lymphocytes and the WBC count is 10,000, what is the lymphocyte count?
The lymphocyte count is calculated using the formula:
Lymphocytes = WBC count / 100 x percentage of the cell type
Thus, Lymphocytes = 10,000 / 100 x 40% = 4000 / µl.
What are thrombocytes and their primary function?
Thrombocytes, also known as platelets, are crucial for the formation of the thrombocyte/platelet plug. They lack nuclei and cannot reproduce, but contain actin, myosin, and the contractile protein thrombosthenin.
What is the normal range of thrombocytes/platelets?
The normal range of thrombocytes/platelets is 150,000 – 400,000 per μl.
What stimulates the formation of thrombocytes in the bone marrow?
The formation of thrombocytes in the bone marrow is stimulated by thrombopoietin, which is produced in the kidney.
What are the terms used for too low and too high levels of platelets?
Too high levels of platelets are called thrombocytosis, while too low levels are referred to as thrombocytopenia.
What materials are used in the estimation of platelet count?
The materials used include a Bürker's chamber, coverslip, microscope, pipette, test tube, and Rees-Ecker's solution.
What are the steps to estimate platelet count using the Bürker's chamber?
How do you calculate the platelet count from the average number of platelets in the Bürker's chamber?
Platelet count is calculated using the formula: Platelet count = average number of platelets x volume of rectangle x dilution. For example, if the average number of platelets is 20, the platelet count would be 20 × 1000 × 10 = 200,000.
What is the first step of primary hemostasis and its significance?
The first step is vasoconstriction, which involves the contraction of smooth muscle in the wall of the broken vessel. This decreases blood flow by shrinking the lumen, facilitating plug formation and reducing blood loss.
What are some vasoconstrictors involved in hemostasis?
Key vasoconstrictors include:
What occurs during thrombocyte plug formation?
During thrombocyte plug formation, when the endothelium is damaged, platelets bind to collagen in the surrounding tissue, activating them. Activated platelets release granule contents like serotonin, ADP, and thromboxane A2, which stimulate further vasoconstriction and activate nearby platelets, leading to the formation of a platelet plug.
What can cause prolonged bleeding time greater than 6 minutes?
Prolonged bleeding time can be caused by malfunction of the thrombocytes or thrombocytopenia (low levels of thrombocytes).
What does a bleeding time lower than normal indicate?
A bleeding time lower than normal is generally considered not pathological, meaning it is within acceptable limits and not a cause for concern.
How does Von Willebrand factor deficiency affect bleeding time?
Bleeding time increases to longer than 5 minutes.
What is the role of the intrinsic pathway in blood clotting?
The intrinsic pathway starts with the activation of prekallikrein to kallikrein, which activates factor XII, leading to a cascade that ultimately activates factor X, contributing to the formation of the prothrombin complex.
What is the intrinsic tenase complex and its components?
The intrinsic tenase complex consists of IXa, VIIIa, Ca2+, and phospholipids.
What is the prothrombin complex and its components?
The prothrombin complex includes Xa, Va, Ca2+, and phospholipids, which are essential for converting prothrombin (factor II) into thrombin (active factor II).
What initiates the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?
The extrinsic pathway is initiated by tissue factor activating factor VII, which becomes VIla, leading to the activation of factor X.
What is the main difference between the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting?
The main difference is that the intrinsic pathway is activated in vitro without tissue factors, while the extrinsic pathway is activated in vivo by tissue factor.
What are the components of the extrinsic tenase complex?
The extrinsic tenase complex consists of tissue factor, VIIa, Ca2+, and phospholipid.
Name four substances that can remove free calcium in blood and prevent clotting in vitro.
The four substances are:
Which clotting factors do not have protease activity?
The clotting factors that do not have protease activity are:
What are the functions of thrombin (factor IIa)?
Thrombin (factor IIa) has several functions:
What happens to clotting time in the case of liver failure?
In the case of liver failure, the clotting time increases because the liver produces plasma proteins, and most clotting factors are plasma proteins.
What are the vitamin-K dependent clotting factors produced in the liver?
The vitamin-K dependent clotting factors produced in the liver are:
What happens to prothrombin time, INR, and Quick index in case of vitamin-K deficiency?
In case of vitamin-K deficiency:
How do prothrombin time, INR, and Quick index change when vitamin-K antagonists like Coumarin or Warfarin are administered?
When vitamin-K antagonists such as Coumarin or Warfarin are administered:
What are the vitamin-K dependent anticoagulant factors?
The vitamin-K dependent anticoagulant factors are:
What is the normal prothrombin time range?
The normal prothrombin time range is 13-22 seconds.
How can you measure the intrinsic pathway activation in the lab?
Intrinsic pathway activation can be measured by prothrombin time. The procedure involves:
What is the prothrombin index and how is it calculated?
The prothrombin index is calculated using the formula:
Prothrombin index (%) = (Prothrombin time of standard plasma / Prothrombin time of sample plasma) * 100%
The normal value of prothrombin index is 70-120%.
What is the normal value of INR and how is it calculated?
The normal value of INR (International Normalized Ratio) is 0.8-1.2. It is calculated using the formula:
INR = (PTsample / PTstandard)^ISI
What is the risk associated with a higher INR and lower Quick index?
A higher INR and lower Quick index indicate a prolonged clotting time, which increases the risk of bleeding.
What is the prothrombin index if the patient's prothrombin time is 30 seconds and the standard sample is 15 seconds?
The prothrombin index is calculated as follows:
Prothrombin index = (15/30) * 100% = 50%
How does fat-malabsorption affect prothrombin time, INR, and Quick index?
This occurs because vitamin K, a fat-soluble vitamin, is not absorbed, affecting vitamin K dependent factors (II, VII, IX, and X), leading to longer clotting times.
What happens to clotting time when Warfarin or Coumarin is administered?
This is due to the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin or Coumarin, which inhibits vitamin K dependent factors.
What is the effect of hypercalcemia on blood clotting time?
In case of hypercalcemia, there will be no change in the clotting time. While calcium is necessary for clotting, excess calcium does not accelerate the process.
What is the primary function of hemoglobin in the blood?
Hemoglobin primarily functions as an oxygen transporter in the blood and also aids in carbon dioxide transport. Additionally, it acts as a buffer for pH due to its high concentration and the presence of histidine molecules.
What does a right shift in the O2-hemoglobin dissociation curve indicate?
A right shift in the O2-hemoglobin dissociation curve indicates that more oxygen pressure is needed to achieve the same saturation, reflecting a decreased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. This shift can occur due to hypercapnia, acidosis, hyperthermia, and increased concentration of diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG), often during exercise.
What factors contribute to a left shift in the O2-hemoglobin dissociation curve?
A left shift in the O2-hemoglobin dissociation curve is caused by factors such as hypocapnia, alkalosis, hypothermia, and decreased concentration of diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG). This shift indicates an increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
What is the normal hemoglobin concentration range for females?
The normal hemoglobin concentration range for females is 120-160 g/L.
What is the normal hemoglobin concentration range for males?
The normal hemoglobin concentration range for males is 140-180 g/L.
How does the O2-Hb curve change in case of decreased pH?
The O2-Hb curve shifts to the right, indicating acidosis.
How does the O2-Hb curve change in case of hypothermia?
The O2-Hb curve shifts to the left.
How does the O2-Hb curve change in case of hypocapnia?
The O2-Hb curve shifts to the left.
How does the O2-Hb curve change in case of increased 2,3 DPG?
The O2-Hb curve shifts to the right.
What is Drabkin's method for determining hemoglobin concentration?
Drabkin's method involves osmotic hemolysis of RBCs followed by the transformation of Hb molecules to cyan-hemoglobin, which is stable and can be measured photometrically at 540 nm.
How does a hemoglobinnometer work to determine hemoglobin concentration?
A hemoglobinnometer compares the absorption of light through a hemolysed blood sample to that of a calibrated prism, using a 546 nm optical filter to measure the sample's color against a standard color, providing results in g/100 ml or as a percentage of the mean value.
What is the effective filtration pressure when the hydrostatic pressure of the capillaries is 30 mmHg, colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma is 25 mmHg, hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is 5 mmHg, and colloid osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is 5 mmHg?
The effective filtration pressure is calculated as follows: 30 mmHg - 25 mmHg - 5 mmHg + 5 mmHg = 5 mmHg.
What happens to water movement when the effective filtration pressure is positive?
When the effective filtration pressure is positive, water moves from the capillaries to the interstitium.
What are some factors that increase filtration?
Factors that increase filtration include:
What are some factors that decrease filtration?
Factors that decrease filtration include:
How does an increase in glycoprotein in the interstitial space affect filtration?
An increase in glycoprotein in the interstitial space increases filtration because it raises the colloid osmotic pressure.
How does liver failure affect filtration?
In liver failure, filtration increases because the liver cannot produce plasma proteins, leading to a decrease in colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma and a decrease in the inward force of the capillary.
What are the main blood types in the ABO blood group system?
The ABO blood group system consists of four main blood types: A, B, AB, and O.
What type of antibodies does type A blood contain?
Type A blood contains anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
What immunoglobulin is responsible for the ABO blood type groups?
The immunoglobulin responsible for ABO blood type groups is IgM.
What antigens and antibodies are present in type O blood?
Type O blood contains neither type A nor B antigens on the RBCs, but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the blood plasma.
How are the A and B antigens inherited in the ABO blood group system?
The alleles coding for the A and B antigens are codominant against the recessive O allele, which codes for an inactive variant of the enzyme that leaves the H antigen unchanged.
What antibodies are present in type AB blood?
Type AB blood contains no antibodies in the blood plasma.
How is blood type determined using the ABO blood type system?
Blood type is determined by using test serums containing antibodies to detect the antigens present on the surface of red blood cells. The presence or absence of agglutination indicates the blood type:
What happens when anti-A antibodies are added to blood type A?
When anti-A antibodies are added to blood type A, agglutination occurs because type A blood contains A antigens on the surface of the red blood cells.
What is the result of adding anti-B antibodies to blood type B?
Adding anti-B antibodies to blood type B results in agglutination because blood type B contains B antigens on the surface of the red blood cells.
What is the significance of agglutination in blood typing?
Agglutination indicates the presence of specific antigens on the red blood cells. It helps in identifying the blood type:
What does it mean if agglutination is not detected in any reactions during blood typing?
If agglutination is not detected in any reactions, it indicates that the subject has blood type O, as there are no A or B antigens present on the red blood cells.
What should be done if agglutination is detected in reaction C during blood typing?
If agglutination is detected in reaction C, the test is considered invalid and must be repeated to ensure accurate results.
What is the Rh blood group system primarily characterized by?
The Rh blood group system is primarily characterized by the presence of the D-antigen, which is the most immunogenic and routinely tested antigen. Individuals with the D antigen are Rh positive, while those without it are Rh negative.
How can the presence of the D antigen be determined in a laboratory setting?
The presence of the D antigen can be determined using a hemagglutination test, where a blood sample is mixed with anti-D serum. If agglutination occurs, the blood sample is Rh(D) positive.
What type of immunoglobulin is the anti-D antibody classified as?
The anti-D antibody is classified as IgG.
How can Rh- blood type develop anti-D antibodies?
Rh- blood type can develop anti-D antibodies if it comes into contact with Rh+ blood, leading to the formation of these antibodies.
What is the universal blood donor group and the universal blood receiver group?
The universal blood donor group is O-, and the universal blood receiver group is AB+.
What defines the Bombay blood group and what antibodies are present in this group?
The Bombay blood group is defined by the lack of H-antigen, A-antigen, and B-antigen on the surface of RBCs. Individuals in this group have anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H antibodies in their blood plasma.
If a patient has anti-A, anti-B, and anti-D antibodies in their blood plasma, what could be their blood group?
The patient's blood group could be O-.
If there is a lack of anti-B and anti-D antibodies in the blood plasma, what are the possible blood types of the patient?
The possible blood types of the patient are B+, B-, AB+, and AB-.
Why can a person be both Rh-negative and Rh-positive?
The D-antigen is not ubiquitous; in Rh-negative blood, it is not certain that there are no anti-D antibodies in the blood plasma, hence we cannot exclude that Rh is negative.
If there is a lack of anti-A and anti-D antibodies in the blood plasma, what are the possible blood types of the patient?
The possible blood types are A+, A-, AB+, and AB-.
What is the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
The ESR is the rate at which red blood cells (RBCs) settle down in a tube for one hour, measured in mm/hour.
What biological factors affect the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
Biological factors include:
What technical factors can affect the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
Technical factors include:
How does the albumin to globulin and fibrinogen ratio affect the ESR?
A higher ratio of albumin to globulin and fibrinogens results in a lower ESR, while a lower ratio leads to a higher ESR. This is because RBCs that stick together (rouleaux) settle faster than individual RBCs, and the negative charge on RBC surfaces prevents rouleaux formation, which is reduced by globulins and fibrinogens.
What factors increase the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)?
Factors that increase ESR include:
What factors decrease the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)?
Factors that decrease ESR include:
What is osmotic resistance in relation to red blood cells (RBCs)?
Osmotic resistance of RBCs is the concentration of the most diluted NaCl solution which the RBCs do not hemolyse. It indicates how well RBCs can withstand osmotic pressure without bursting.
What happens to red blood cells in hypertonic solutions?
In hypertonic solutions, red blood cells shrink due to water loss, resulting in a crumpled appearance.
What occurs to red blood cells in hypotonic solutions?
In hypotonic solutions, red blood cells take up extra water and swell. If the osmotic concentration is too low, the cell membrane may rupture, leading to hemolysis.
What is the osmotic resistance range for red blood cells?
The normal osmotic resistance for red blood cells is between 0.46% and 0.42% NaCl solution.
How can you demonstrate the effect of different osmotic concentrations on the shape of RBCs?
By marking five glass slides with numbers 1-5 and adding different solutions: 1 – 3% NaCl, 2 – 0.9% NaCl, 3 – 0.4% NaCl, 4 - deionised water, 5 – 0.9% NaCl solution and diethyl ether. A drop of blood is added to each slide, covered with a cover slip, and examined under a microscope using the 100x objective with immersion oil.
In which diseases can osmotic resistance of RBCs increase or decrease?
Osmotic resistance decreases in spherocytosis and increases in iron deficiency and sickle cell disease.
In the case of red cell membrane disease, will RBCs rupture at a higher or lower osmotic resistance?
RBCs will rupture earlier at higher osmotic resistance.
In which blood parameter measurements is a centrifuge used?
A centrifuge is used in hematocrit and the quantitative osmotic resistance of RBCs measurements.
What are the four compartments of a neuron according to the four-compartment model?
The four compartments of a neuron are:
Where is the fast voltage gated sodium channels found in the myelinated neuron?
In the node of Ranvier.
What are the different types of neurons based on their function?
The different types of neurons based on their function are: