Is a causal relationship necessary for an occurrence to be classified as an Adverse Event (AE)?
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No, it does not necessarily have to have a causal relationship with the treatment.
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Is a causal relationship necessary for an occurrence to be classified as an Adverse Event (AE)?
No, it does not necessarily have to have a causal relationship with the treatment.
How does Pharmacovigilance promote safe use of medicinal products?
By providing timely information about safety to patients, healthcare professionals, and the public.
What does causality mean in pharmacovigilance?
The relationship between the suspect product and the adverse drug event.
What is the definition of an adverse event?
Any unfavorable or unintended sign, symptom, or disease associated with the use of a medicinal product.
What is the DSUR?
Development Safety Update Report.
Can an Adverse Event (AE) include abnormal laboratory findings?
Yes, it can include any unfavorable and unintended sign, symptom, or disease temporally associated with the use of a medicinal product.
What does DHPC stand for?
Direct Healthcare Professional Communication.
In what scenarios can adverse reactions arise?
From use within or outside the marketing authorisation or from occupational exposure.
What does DLP refer to?
Data Lock Point.
What does Day Zero refer to?
The first date on which any representative of an organization was notified of the minimum essential elements for expedited reporting.
What is the regulatory body for drug safety in the USA?
United States Food and Drug Administration (USFDA).
What does SUSAR stand for?
Suspected Unexpected Serious Adverse Reaction.
What does compassionate use of a medicinal product mean?
Making a medicinal product available for compassionate reasons to patients with seriously debilitating or life-threatening diseases who cannot be treated satisfactorily with authorized products.
What is the WHO Drug Dictionary (WHO DD)?
An international classification of drugs providing proprietary and non-proprietary names of medicinal products used in different countries, together with all active ingredients.
What is a registry in pharmacovigilance?
An organised system that collects uniform data on specified outcomes in a defined population based on disease, condition, or exposure.
What does IME stand for?
Important medical event.
What does 'Lack of Efficacy (LOE)' refer to?
The absence of expected or desired effect related to a therapy.
What is a requirement for a medicinal product to be considered for compassionate use?
It must be subject to an application for central marketing authorization or undergoing clinical trials.
What is another name for Cumulative or Aggregate Reporting?
Periodic Reporting.
What is EudraVigilance abbreviated as?
EV.
What type of diseases are eligible for compassionate use of medicinal products?
Chronically or seriously debilitating diseases and life-threatening diseases.
How often must PADERs be submitted in the USA during the first three years after drug approval?
Quarterly.
What are the minimum criteria required for a valid case?
An identifiable reporter, an identifiable patient, a suspect product, and an adverse drug event.
What defines an Adverse Event (AE)?
Any untoward medical occurrence in a patient following the administration of a pharmaceutical product, which may not necessarily have a causal relationship with the treatment.
What is a clinical trial?
An investigation in human subjects to discover or verify clinical and pharmacological effects, identify adverse reactions, and study pharmacokinetics of investigational medicinal products.
When is a case considered to be medically confirmed?
If it contains at least one event confirmed or reported by a Health Care Professional (HCP).
What are Patient Support Programs (PSPs)?
Programs designed to assist patients in managing their treatment and therapy.
What is the reporting timeline for a SUSAR that is not life-threatening and does not result in death?
It must be submitted within fifteen (15) calendar days.
What should a narrative in a report consist of?
Precise and concise information about the source of the report, patient demographics, medical history, concomitant medications, suspect product details, and adverse event details in an orderly manner.
What is the name of the regulatory body in Japan for health and welfare?
Ministry of Health, Labour and Welfare (MHLW).
What indicates a positive dechallenge?
When the adverse event subsides or disappears after the removal of the drug.
What does diagnosis, prevention, monitoring, and treatment of disease involve?
It involves the process of identifying illnesses, preventing their occurrence, monitoring progress, and providing treatment or alleviation.
What does EuRD stand for?
EU Reference Date.
What is the full form of INN?
International non-proprietary name.
What is the regulatory authority responsible for drug control in India?
Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO).
What does 'medically significant' mean in the context of adverse events?
Events that do not meet specific criteria but are serious enough that treatment is needed to prevent more severe outcomes.
What does MA stand for in a regulatory context?
Marketing authorisation.
What is the case submission timeline for cases with other seriousness criteria?
15 days.
What is a medication error?
When a doctor unintentionally prescribes/administers a drug by an unauthorized route of administration.
What is the meaning of ATMP?
Advanced therapy medicinal product.
What is the role of a 'QPPV'?
Qualified Person responsible for Pharmacovigilance.
What does a Refuted signal indicate?
A validated signal that has been determined to be 'false' after further assessment.
What constitutes an overdose?
Administration of a quantity of a medicinal product above the maximum recommended dose according to the authorized product information.
What constitutes a serious adverse event?
Results in death, is life-threatening, or requires inpatient hospitalization.
What replaces Volume 9A in pharmacovigilance legislation?
Good pharmacovigilance practice (GVP) guidelines.
What is an Adverse Drug Reaction (ADR)?
An adverse event that has a causal association with a drug.
Who manages the UMC?
Uppsala Monitoring Centre.
What are conditions of use outside the marketing authorisation?
Off-label use, overdose, misuse, abuse, and medication errors.
What are the categories for estimating the frequency of Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs)?
Very common (>10%), Common (>1% and <10%), Uncommon (>0.1% and <1%), Rare (>0.01% and <0.1%), Very rare (<0.01%).
What are the GVP guidelines?
Guidelines released by the European Medicines Agency for good pharmacovigilance practices.
What outcomes indicate a significant adverse event?
Persistent or significant disability/incapacity, congenital anomaly (birth defect), or medically significant events requiring treatment.
What does eCTD stand for?
Electronic Common Technical Document.
What does AEFI refer to?
Adverse event following immunization.
What does Volume 9A provide guidance on?
Requirements, procedures, roles, and activities in pharmacovigilance.
What is AESI?
Adverse event of special interest.
What does EEA refer to?
European Economic Area.
What does CIOMS III consist of?
Core data sheets.
What does aRMM stand for?
Additional risk minimization measure.
What is the primary function of Aggregate Reporting?
To compile safety data for a drug over a prolonged period.
What is covered in CIOMS IV?
Benefit-risk assessments.
What are the modules mentioned in the context of safety communications?
Module XV – Safety communications, Module XVI – Risk minimisation measures, Module XVI Addendum I – Educational materials, Module XVI Addendum II – Methods for effectiveness evaluation.
How does Aggregate Reporting differ from single-case reporting?
Aggregate Reporting compiles data over time, while single-case reporting involves individual AE reports.
What is a Development Safety Update Report (DSUR)?
A comprehensive annual review and evaluation of safety information collected during the reporting period related to a drug under investigation.
What is the cut-off date for data in a Periodic Benefit-Risk Evaluation Report (PBRER)?
The date designated based on the international birth date.
What does CCDS stand for?
Company core data sheet.
What is the DIBD?
The date of approval of the first authorization for conducting an interventional clinical trial in any country.
Who do GVP apply to?
Marketing-authorisation holders, EMA, and regulatory authorities in EU Member States.
What is CCSI?
Company core safety information.
What are post-approval named patient programs?
Programs that allow individual patients access to unapproved therapies.
What is the reporting timeline for a SUSAR that is life-threatening or results in death?
It must be reported within seven (7) calendar days.
Who qualifies as a Health Care Professional (HCP)?
Physicians, nurses, pharmacists, etc.
Can clinical trials be conducted in multiple sites?
Yes, clinical trials can be carried out in one or multiple sites and in one or more Member States.
Who uses the UMC for identifying drug names?
Pharmaceutical companies, clinical trial organizations, and drug regulatory authorities.
What does 'Unexpected Adverse Reaction' mean?
An adverse reaction inconsistent with the applicable product information.
What is VigiBase?
The largest repository of drug safety data across the globe, maintained by Uppsala Monitoring Centre (UMC).
Can the term 'side effect' apply to beneficial consequences?
Yes, it can also refer to beneficial but unintended consequences of drug use.
Who can benefit from compassionate use of a medicinal product?
Patients with chronically or seriously debilitating diseases or those whose conditions are life-threatening.
What does CIOMS stand for?
Council for International Organizations of Medical Sciences.
What does a negative dechallenge suggest?
That the event persists even after removal of the drug, indicating a causal relationship is unlikely.
What is the case submission timeline for death or life-threatening cases?
7 days.
What are the different sections included in a PBRER?
Title page, Executive Summary, Table of Contents, Introduction, Worldwide Marketing Approval Status.
What is the format and content required for an ICSR?
It must include details of suspected adverse reactions related to a medicinal product for a specific patient.
What does 'PT' stand for in pharmacovigilance terminology?
Preferred term.
What does EVCTM represent?
EudraVigilance Clinical Trial Module.
What is MAH an abbreviation for?
Marketing authorisation holder.
How can a safety signal be closed?
It can be closed because it is refuted or determined to be a potential or identified risk.
What does EPAR stand for?
European Public Assessment Report.
What does signal validation help justify?
Further analysis of the detected signal.
At what stages can medication errors occur?
Prescribing, storage, dispensing, preparation, and administration.
What does 'RCT' represent?
Randomised clinical trial.
How does ICH describe refuted signals?
As signals that have been refuted as 'false' based on medical judgment and scientific evaluation.
What is the cut-off date for data in a Development Safety Update Report (DSUR)?
The date designated based on the development international birth date.
What does Pharmacovigilance aim to prevent?
Harm from adverse reactions in humans arising from authorized medicinal products.
What is an Adverse Drug Reaction (ADR)?
A noxious and unintended response to a medicinal product with a reasonable possibility of a causal relationship.
What are the objectives of a clinical trial?
To ascertain the safety and/or efficacy of one or more investigational medicinal products.
What is the role of Pharmacovigilance in public health?
It contributes to the protection of patient and public health.
What is the key difference between AE and ADR?
AE may not have a causal relationship with a drug, while ADR always does.
What does DME stand for?
Designated Medical Event.
What is a side effect in medicine?
An effect, whether therapeutic or adverse, that is secondary to the one intended.
What does a PSUR/PBRER provide?
An analysis of the risk-benefit profile of a medicinal product based on safety, efficacy, and effectiveness information.
What is defined as a SUSAR?
An untoward and unintended response to a study drug that meets serious criteria.
What does CIOMS I represent?
The international reporting form.
What factors can cause variation in side effects among individuals?
Disease state, age, weight, gender, ethnicity, and general health.
Which organization regulates therapeutic goods in Australia?
Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA).
What is the quality system in a pharmacovigilance system?
The organisational structure, responsibilities, procedures, processes, resources, and resource management within the pharmacovigilance framework.
What is off-label use of a medicinal product?
Using a medicinal product for a medical purpose not in accordance with the terms of the marketing authorization.
Who is Volume 9A intended for?
Marketing Authorisation Holders (MAH) and Competent Authorities.
What is a positive rechallenge?
When the adverse event reappears after the drug is reintroduced, strongly suggesting a causal relationship.
What is a Non-interventional trial?
A study where medicinal products are prescribed in the usual manner according to marketing authorization.
What characterizes product counterfeits?
They may contain lower quality substances, wrong doses, or be mislabelled to hide the source.
What should signal validation take into account?
Strength of the evidence, clinical relevance, and previous awareness of the association.
What is a PADER?
A Periodic Adverse Drug Experience Report submitted to the USFDA as part of post-cumulative safety reports.
What is the case submission timeline for non-serious cases?
90 days.
What is the function of EVDAS?
EudraVigilance Data Analysis System.
What does rechallenge refer to?
The administration of a drug again to a patient after its previous withdrawal.
What patterns are being observed in medication errors?
Patterns of medication errors and potential medication errors.
What is Pharmacovigilance?
The science and activities related to the detection, assessment, understanding, and prevention of adverse effects or any medicine-related problem.
What is an Adverse Event (AE)?
An occurrence that may not be causally related to a drug.
What is the meaning of DIBD?
Development International Birth Date.
What does Pharmacovigilance cover?
The entire life-cycle of a medicinal product.
Which agency oversees medicines in the UK?
Medicines and Healthcare Regulatory Agency (MHRA).
What is an Advanced Therapy Medicinal Product (ATMP)?
A medicinal product for human use related to gene therapy, somatic cell therapy, or tissue engineering.
What is the main difference between a PSUR and a PBRER?
A PSUR serves as an interval safety report, whereas a PBRER is a cumulative benefit-risk report.
Which serious criteria can classify a reaction as SUSAR?
Results in death, is life-threatening, requires hospitalization, results in persistent disability, or is a congenital anomaly.
What is the eRMR?
Electronic Reaction Monitoring Report.
What is the purpose of CIOMS II?
Periodic safety update reports manual.
What does 'population' refer to in the context of medicine?
Different groups of patients receiving medication.
Who maintains VigiBase?
Uppsala Monitoring Centre (UMC).
What is the primary focus of signal validation in pharmacovigilance?
Evaluating data to verify the existence of a new potentially causal association or a new aspect of a known association.
What does it mean to misuse a medicinal product?
Intentionally and inappropriately using a medicinal product not in accordance with the authorized product information.
What is a major safety issue in clinical studies?
An unexpectedly increased rate of fatal or life-threatening adverse events.
What is the purpose of dechallenge?
To withdraw a drug and monitor its effect on an adverse event.
What is abuse of a medicinal product?
Persistent or sporadic, intentional excessive use of medicinal products causing harmful physical or psychological effects.
What may counterfeit medicinal products have?
Counterfeit packaging, wrong ingredients, or a lower proportion of the active substance.
What is an adverse reaction suggested by well-documented spontaneous reports?
An adverse reaction with strong causality supported by temporal relationship and biological plausibility, such as anaphylactic reactions.
What is the purpose of a medical device?
To be used for diagnostic and/or therapeutic purposes in human beings.
Why are periodic reports important in drug safety?
They play a key role in the risk-benefit evaluation of the drug.
What is meant by disease progression in this context?
Atypical or accelerated progression of disease indicating poor efficacy of the product.
What is occupational exposure to a medicinal product?
Exposure to a medicinal product as a result of one’s professional or non-professional occupation for reporting suspected adverse reactions.
What is MedDRA?
Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities.
What types of activities are involved in periodic reporting?
Collective case analysis, monitoring regulatory actions, and literature searches.
What does PSUR stand for?
Periodic Safety Update Report.
What does dechallenge mean in pharmacovigilance?
It refers to the withdrawal of a drug suspected of causing an adverse event.
What is CIOMS?
The Council for International Organizations of Medical Sciences, established jointly by WHO and UNESCO in 1949 as a non-profit organization.
Which regulation defines Advanced Therapy Medicinal Products (ATMP)?
Regulation (EC) No 1394/2007.
What does posology refer to in medicine?
The study of different doses of medication.
What additional data does a PBRER include that a PSUR does not?
Data on efficacy and effectiveness from ongoing or updated clinical trials and cohort studies.
What is an Individual Case Safety Report (ICSR)?
It is a report detailing one or several suspected adverse reactions to a medicinal product occurring in a single patient at a specific point in time.
What is an indication of less than expected effect of a product?
Lack of efficacy/effect.
What is off-label use?
When a doctor intentionally prescribes/administers a drug by an unauthorized route of administration.
What is a medication error?
An unintended failure in the drug treatment process that may harm the patient.
What is the EMA?
European Medicines Agency.
What is the cut-off date for data in a Periodic Safety Update Report (PSUR)?
The date designated for data to be included in a PSUR.
What does a failure in the drug treatment process refer to?
Human or process-mediated failures, not lack of drug efficacy.
What does DIBD stand for?
Developmental International Birth Date.
What are Good Pharmacovigilance Practices (GVP)?
A set of measures to facilitate pharmacovigilance in the EU.
What is a Non-confirmed signal in the EU signal management process?
A validated signal in EPITT that does not require further analysis and prioritization by PRAC at that time.
What does medicine administration through different routes refer to?
Administering medicine by methods not approved for its use.
What is the purpose of a DSUR?
To assure regulators that sponsors are adequately monitoring and evaluating the evolving safety profile of the investigational drug.
What are identified risks in the summary of product characteristics (SmPC)?
Adverse reactions included in section 4.8 of the SmPC, unless they are class-related reactions not specifically described with this product.
When is a rechallenge considered after a positive dechallenge?
When the adverse event subsides or disappears after the drug is removed.
What is a Newly identified signal?
A signal first identified during the reporting interval, prompting further actions or evaluation.
Who can provide unsolicited reports?
Healthcare professionals, patients, or consumers.
Do GVP cover centrally authorized medicines?
Yes, they cover centrally and nationally authorized medicines.
What is the purpose of a REMS?
To help ensure that the benefits of a medication outweigh its risks.
To whom are aggregate reports submitted?
Various regulatory agencies.
What does worldwide marketing authorization status indicate?
The approval of a medicinal product for sale in different regions.
What can the comparator be in a clinical trial?
Placebo, an active substance, or non-exposure.
What is addressed in Module II of GVP?
Pharmacovigilance system master file.
Do unsolicited reports come from organized data collection systems?
No, they do not.
What is the purpose of a PSUR/PBRER?
To provide an evaluation of the risk-benefit balance of a medicinal product for submission during the post-authorisation phase.
What is a Closed signal in periodic benefit-risk evaluation reports?
A signal for which an evaluation was completed during the reporting interval.
What international framework does Volume 9A incorporate?
International agreements from the International Conference on Harmonisation (ICH).
What is a medical device?
Any instrument, apparatus, appliance, software, or material intended for diagnostic and/or therapeutic purposes for human beings.
How is patient assignment determined in a Non-interventional study?
It is not decided in advance by a trial protocol but falls within current practice.
What types of sources provide unsolicited or spontaneous reports?
Patients, consumers, healthcare professionals, medical information enquiries, literature reports, internet/digital media, clinical trials, non-interventional studies, and registries.
What issues does CIOMS V address?
Practical issues in Pharmacovigilance.
What does ME refer to in pharmacovigilance?
Medication error.
What is an Ongoing signal in periodic benefit-risk evaluation reports?
A signal that remains under evaluation at the data lock point.
What are solicited reports?
Reports derived from organized data systems, including clinical trials, non-interventional studies, and registries.
What data does CIOMS VI deal with?
Clinical trial safety data.
What is the submission frequency for PADERs after the first three years post-drug approval?
Annually.
Are additional diagnostic or monitoring procedures applied to patients in a Non-interventional study?
No, no additional procedures shall be applied.
What does the history of pharmacovigilance system inspections analyze?
The impact of findings on the benefit-risk balance of medicinal products.
What is EVMPD?
EudraVigilance Medicinal Product Dictionary.
What is the definition of an identified risk according to GVP Annex I (Rev 3)?
An untoward occurrence for which there is adequate evidence of an association with the medicinal product of interest.
What does benefit-risk balance refer to?
The evaluation of the advantages and disadvantages of a medicinal product.
What factors determine whether a risk is considered important?
The seriousness of the risk and its impact on public health.
What is the focus of CIOMS VIII?
Practical aspects of signal detection in Pharmacovigilance.
What is the role of NCA?
National competent authority.
What actions might be taken for safety reasons during the marketing authorization period?
Actions can include product recalls, usage restrictions, or safety warnings.
What is the role of documentation in signal validation?
It must contain sufficient evidence demonstrating the existence of a new association or aspect.
What type of medications typically require a REMS?
Medications with serious safety concerns.
What is the purpose of DHPC?
To inform healthcare professionals of the need to take specific actions or adapt their practices related to a medicinal product.
What information should be included in a PADER?
Details of adverse drug experiences and relevant data as required.
What does causality in adverse reactions imply?
Strong support from temporal relationship and biological plausibility.
What is the purpose of a Risk Management System (RMS)?
To identify, characterize, prevent, or minimize risks related to medicinal products.
What is a 'SAR'?
Serious Adverse Reaction.
What are risk minimisation activities?
Product information advising on specific clinical actions to minimize risk or additional risk minimisation activities.
What distinguishes the prescription of medicine in a Non-interventional study from the study itself?
The prescription is clearly separated from the decision to include the patient in the study.
What is EPITT?
European Pharmacovigilance Issues Tracking Tool.
Why is urgent attention and management sometimes required in pharmacovigilance?
To address potential patients’ or public health impacts that significantly affect the risk-benefit balance of a medicinal product.
What is involved in the monitoring and treatment of injury?
It includes diagnosis, monitoring, treatment, and alleviation or compensation for a handicap.
What is a signal in pharmacovigilance?
A signal arises from a spontaneous adverse reaction reporting system, indicating an event associated with other active substances within the same class.
What could atypical disease progression include?
Faster progression than expected or unexpected elements attributed to treatment by the suspected product.
What does DLP stand for?
Data Lock Point.
What does Module I of GVP cover?
Pharmacovigilance systems and their quality systems.
What do unsolicited reports describe?
One or more suspected adverse reactions in patients given medicinal products.
What is EudraCT?
European Clinical Trials Database.
Who can require a REMS for certain medications?
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
What actions should be taken during the reporting interval period for ADRs?
Actions taken should be documented, or if unknown, the earliest known marketing authorization date for the product.
What does 'ROR' signify?
Reporting Odds Ratio.
What is CIOMS's mission?
To advance public health through guidance on health research and policy, including ethics, medical product development, and safety.
What identifies major safety issues in pharmacovigilance?
Through spontaneous reporting systems or scientific literature.
What influences the timelines for case submissions?
Drug type, seriousness, and causality.
What are significant changes made to the Reference Information (RI)?
Modifications regarding safety and efficacy related data since the last marketing authorization or renewal.
How can follow-up information to adverse drug experiences be submitted?
In the next periodic report.
How often are Aggregate Reports conducted?
On a periodic basis.
What is meant by estimated exposure and usage patterns?
The expected number of patients using the product and how they use it.
What is the frequency of periodic reporting for drug safety?
Except for 15-day alert reports.
What does Aggregate Reporting involve?
Reviewing cumulative safety information from a wide range of sources.
What factors might a doctor consider regarding drug treatment progression?
The treatment with a company product or the lack of effectiveness.
What are risk minimization measures?
Interventions intended to prevent or reduce the occurrence of adverse reactions associated with a medicine.
What are registries used for in the context of drug safety?
Registries help gather and report information on adverse drug reactions.
In which reports are potential risks classified?
In the PSUR (Periodic Safety Update Report) and PBRER (Periodic Benefit-Risk Evaluation Report).
What does PL stand for?
Package leaflet.
What are included as important potential risks in the RMP?
Those risks that could impact the risk-benefit balance of the medicinal product when further characterized and confirmed.
What is the purpose of Cumulative and Interval Patient Exposure from Marketing Experience?
To analyze patient exposure to a product over time after it has been marketed.
What are unsolicited or spontaneous reports?
Reports received from healthcare professionals, patients, or consumers describing suspected adverse reactions not derived from a structured study.
What does EV EWG stand for?
EudraVigilance Expert Working Group.
What does REMS stand for?
Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy.
What are examples of off-label use?
Intentional use of a product in situations other than those described in the authorized product information.
When is the first data lock point for the DSUR?
The first anniversary of the DIBD.
What is an Emerging safety issue?
A safety issue that requires urgent attention due to its potential major impact on risk-benefit balance.
What is a Non-validated signal?
A signal that lacks sufficient evidence for a new potentially causal association or a new aspect of a known association, warranting no further analysis.
What defines a Confirmed signal in the EU signal management process?
A validated signal entered in the European Pharmacovigilance Issues Tracking Tool (EPITT) that requires further analysis by the PRAC.
According to ICH-E2F Guideline, what is further evaluated in the pharmacovigilance plan?
Frequency, severity, seriousness, and outcome of the risk under normal conditions of use, and which populations are particularly at risk.
What module does EVPM refer to?
EudraVigilance Post-Authorisation Module.
What does GVP module V (Rev 2) say about identified risks?
Undesirable clinical outcomes for which there is sufficient scientific evidence that they are caused by the medicinal product.
What is DHPC?
A communication intervention by which important information is delivered to healthcare professionals regarding medicinal products.
What is the IBD?
The date of the first marketing authorization for any product containing the active substance granted in any country.
What is EVWEB?
EudraVigilance Web Application.
What raises suspicion of a causal relationship in clinical trials?
Adverse events with a significant difference compared to the comparator group.
What does an Aggregate Report summarize?
All existing safety experience with a medicinal product.
What types of information can be derived from internet/digital media for reports?
Reports can be derived from websites, forums, chat rooms, blogs, and social networks.
What can a person become obsessed with?
Any legal or illegal drugs.
Where are identified risks typically documented?
In the Summary of Product Characteristics (SmPC).
What typically warrants inclusion in the RMP?
An important identified risk that is likely to impact the risk-benefit balance of the product.
What is GCP an abbreviation for?
Good Clinical Practice.
What does the RMS cover?
The entire life-cycle of a medicinal product.
What does DEC stand for?
Drug Event Combination.
What does GVP stand for?
Good Pharmacovigilance Practices.
What is the role of the Pharmacovigilance Risk Assessment Committee (PRAC)?
To evaluate all available data relevant to a signal to determine regulatory actions.
What is the purpose of summarizing significant safety and efficacy findings?
To assess the product's effectiveness and risks during the renewal period.
What can lead to the identification of risks?
Signal evaluation.
What is the purpose of Section 16.2 of the periodic benefit-risk evaluation report?
It relates to signals concerning adverse effects.
What is 'SOC' in pharmacovigilance?
System organ class.
What is a Validated signal?
A signal that has been verified to have sufficient evidence for a new potentially causal association or a new aspect of a known association, justifying further analysis.
What differentiates off-label use from medication error?
The element of 'intention' at the prescriber level.
What does 'RMM' stand for?
Risk minimisation measure.
What does EU stand for?
European Union.
Does occupational exposure include manufacturing process exposure?
No, it does not include exposure to ingredients during the manufacturing process before the product is released.
What does CHMP stand for?
Committee for Medicinal Products for Human Use.
What does IBD stand for?
International Birth Date.
Why might an Emerging safety issue require prompt regulatory action?
Due to its potential impact on patient or public health.
What are non-clinical toxicological findings?
Findings that have not been observed or resolved in clinical studies.
What is the primary intended action of medical devices as per Dir 93/42/EEC Art 1(2)(a)?
Investigation, replacement or modification of anatomy or physiological processes, and control of conception.
What should be included in the contraindications or warnings section of product information?
Any risk that is likely to be serious.
What types of reactions are considered class-related reactions?
Reactions mentioned in the SmPC but not specifically described as occurring with the product.
What does RMS stand for?
Risk Management System.
What does CMDh refer to?
Coordination Group for Mutual Recognition and Decentralised Procedures – Human.
What is missing information in the context of pharmacovigilance?
Critical gaps in knowledge about a medicinal product related to safety or use in particular patient populations.
With which organizations is CIOMS officially related?
WHO and is an associate partner of UNESCO.
What might lead to a contraindication or withdrawal of a medicinal product?
Major safety issues identified through reporting systems.
What is PASS an abbreviation for?
Post-authorisation safety study.
What does a PSUR/PBRER evaluate regarding risk minimisation?
The effectiveness of the risk minimisation measures described in the Risk Management Plan (RMP).
Why is the ACO important?
It is essential for reevaluating the current benefit-risk balance to assure patients' health and safety.
What does 'SDR' indicate?
Signal of disproportionate reporting.
Where are important risks identified and monitored?
In the DSUR, RMP, and PSUR/PBRER.
How are potential risks identified?
Through signal evaluation.
What is covered in Module VI?
Collection, management and submission of reports of suspected adverse reactions.
What defines a drug interaction?
A reaction between two or more drugs or between a drug and a food, beverage, or supplement.
What does Cumulative Subject Exposure in Clinical Trials refer to?
It indicates the total exposure of subjects to a treatment over the duration of clinical trials.
What are patient support programs used for in solicited reports?
They gather structured information on drug efficacy and safety.
What is the purpose of the integrated benefit-risk analysis?
To evaluate approved indications for a product.
What is the process of signal and risk evaluation?
Assessing safety data to determine potential risks associated with a product.
What does the Signal Assessment phase involve?
Evaluating the confirmed signals to make recommendations for action.
Give an example of a solicited report.
Reports from post-approval patient use programs or disease management programs.
What does CIOMS VII refer to?
Development safety update reports.
What does MLM stand for?
Medical Literature Monitoring.
What is a 'RMP'?
Risk management plan.
What is the purpose of gathering solicited reports?
To collect information on efficacy or patient compliance.
What role does the PRAC play in signal management?
PRAC prioritizes signals for further analysis but may decide that some validated signals do not require immediate action.
What is CIOMS?
Council for International Organizations of Medical Sciences.
What is the definition of 'Important risk' according to GVP Annex I?
An identified or potential risk that could impact the risk-benefit balance of the product or have implications for public health.
What role does medical judgment play in evaluating signals?
It helps determine whether a signal is refuted or should be considered valid.
What does ACO stand for?
Addendum to the Clinical Overview.
What means are not primarily used to achieve intended actions in the defined medical devices?
Pharmacological, immunological, or metabolic means.
What does PAES stand for?
Post-authorisation efficacy study.
When are PSURs/PBRERs submitted?
At defined time points during the post-authorisation phase.
What information does the ACO compile?
All cumulated effectiveness and safety data related to a medicinal product since marketing authorization (MA) or its last renewal.
What is the focus of Module IV?
Pharmacovigilance audits.
What role do clinical trials play in the reporting system?
They provide solicited reports of suspect adverse reactions.
What is a key sign of drug addiction development?
Continuing to consume the drug despite the impairment it causes.
What does the signal management process in the EU involve?
Signal assessment by the Pharmacovigilance Risk Assessment Committee (PRAC).
What does Module V of GVP consist of?
Risk management systems.
What is the primary goal of medication labeling?
To inform health care stakeholders about medication risks.
What is included in the late-breaking information in pharmacovigilance?
Relevant updates regarding medication errors and benefits during the evaluation period.
What do HLGT and HLT represent?
Higher Level Group Term and High-Level Term, respectively.
What does periodic reporting facilitate in pharmacovigilance?
Ongoing safety monitoring and risk assessment.
What is signal assessment?
The process of further evaluating a validated signal using all available evidence.
What does Module VI Addendum I address?
Duplicate management of suspected adverse reactions reports.
How can medical conditions affect drug interactions?
Taking a drug while having certain medical conditions can cause a drug interaction.
What is the focus of section 16.1?
Summary of Safety Concerns.
What is ICH?
The International Conference on Harmonization of Technical Requirements for Registration of Pharmaceuticals for Human Use.
What does section 16.2 address?
Signal Evaluation.
What does ICSR represent?
Individual Case Safety Report.
What is evaluated in section 16.3?
Risks and New Information.
What defines a potential risk according to GVP Annex I (Rev 3)?
An untoward occurrence with some suspicion of association with the medicinal product, but where the association has not been confirmed.
What type of reports does the 15-day alert report include?
MedWatch form (3500A) for each ADR not reported as a 15-day expedited report.
What methods are used for the analysis of collected data in a Non-interventional study?
Epidemiological methods.
What does PBRER stand for?
Periodic Benefit-Risk Evaluation Report.
What does the Data Lock Point (DLP) represent?
The cut-off date for data and analyses presented in a document.
What is the advantage of Aggregate Reporting?
It provides a broader view of the safety profile of a drug.
What distinguishes spontaneous reports from solicited reports?
Spontaneous reports are unsolicited, while solicited reports are gathered through structured systems.
What is a Development Safety Update Report (DSUR)?
A format and content for periodic reporting on drugs under development.
How are identified risks usually described and classified?
In the PSUR/PBRER as important or not important.
What does 'SAE' mean?
Serious Adverse Event.
What should a marketing authorization holder do if they have no information on the actual IBD?
Refer to listings of birth dates developed by some regions.
What is the Signal Management process?
A set of activities to determine new risks or changes in known risks associated with a medicinal product based on various data sources.
What does EU reference date signify?
The date of the first marketing authorisation in the EU of a medicinal product containing a specific active substance or combination.
According to GVP, what constitutes a clinically significant gap?
Gaps in knowledge about safety for certain anticipated utilizations, such as long-term use.
What is identified, characterized, and monitored in the Risk Management Plan (RMP) and Periodic Safety Update Report (PSUR)?
Missing information.
What type of studies observe identified risks?
Clinical trials or clinical practice.
What does GVP module V suggest about safety profiles?
There may be insufficient knowledge to determine whether the safety profile differs for particular patient populations.
What is Signal Detection?
The process of identifying signals using data from any source.
What is suggested by well-designed clinical trials regarding identified risks?
A causal relationship compared to the comparator group on a parameter of interest.
What factors are evaluated to define the important risks of a medicinal product?
Safety profile, mechanisms of action, epidemiology, risk factors/groups, and available clinical/post-marketing experience.
What is Signal Prioritization?
The continuous process of identifying signals suggesting potential important risks.
What does 'SMQ' refer to?
Standardised MedDRA query.
What does IBD stand for?
International Birth Date.
What are post-authorisation obligations?
Conditions imposed as part of the marketing authorization for a medicinal product.
What is an important identified risk?
A risk that could impact the risk-benefit balance of the product or have public health implications.
What types of data are included in the safety assessment process?
Non-clinical and clinical data.
What is an important potential risk?
A risk that, when characterized and confirmed, could impact the risk-benefit balance or public health.
What may happen as a major safety-related regulatory action outside the EU?
Restriction of use or suspension of a medicinal product.
What tool is used for tracking pharmacovigilance issues in the EU?
European Pharmacovigilance Issues Tracking Tool (EPITT).
What does Module III focus on?
Pharmacovigilance inspections.
What should the RMP focus on according to GVP module V?
The important identified risks likely to impact the risk-benefit balance of the product.
What does FAERS stand for?
FDA Adverse Event Reporting System.
What does GVP module V describe regarding undesirable clinical outcomes?
They may be scientifically suspected to have a causal relationship with the medicinal product.
What is DDPS?
Detailed description of the pharmacovigilance system.
What if a product is not included in any listing for IBD?
Propose a birth date based on the earliest known marketing authorization and obtain regulatory authority’s agreement.
What are the key activities included in the Signal Management process?
Signal detection, validation, confirmation, analysis and prioritization, assessment, and recommendation for action.
When is the EU reference date applicable?
For medicinal products containing the same active substance or combination of active substances.
What type of data is included in summary tabulations?
Summaries of safety and efficacy findings from clinical trials and noninterventional studies.
What should the critical discussion in the ACO address?
The current benefit-risk balance based on PSUR data and safety/efficacy data since the granting of the MA or the last renewal.
What is the abbreviation for Pharmacovigilance?
PhV.
What database is used for monitoring data related to adverse reactions?
EudraVigilance database.
What does benefit evaluation involve?
Assessing the positive effects of a medicinal product.
What are typical examples of missing information in medicinal product studies?
Use in pregnant and lactating women or in the pediatric population without adequate clinical studies.
What types of data sources are used in the Signal Management process?
Individual case safety reports, aggregated data from surveillance systems, scientific literature, and other data sources.
What is PPP in the context of pharmacovigilance?
Pregnancy prevention programme.
Give an example of a drug interaction.
Taking a nasal decongestant if you have high blood pressure may cause an unwanted reaction.
What does PRAC stand for?
Pharmacovigilance and Risk Assessment Committee.
What is drug addiction?
A disease that negatively affects a person's brain and behavior.
What is the meaning of PRR?
Proportional reporting ratio.
Where are the safety concerns of a medicinal product identified and monitored?
In the DSUR, RMP, and PSUR/PBRER.
What does the term 'Completed Clinical Trials' signify?
Trials that have finished and have no further subjects enrolled.
What distinguishes Ongoing Clinical Trials?
They are still in progress with active subject enrollment.
What is the purpose of the RMP?
To reflect the increasing knowledge on risks and benefits and post-marketing experience.
What type of findings are discussed in section 8?
Findings from Non-interventional Studies.
What does Estimated Exposure and Use Patterns indicate?
It refers to estimates of how many patients have used a product over a period.
What type of information is provided in section 14?
Late-Breaking Information.
What indicates the possibility of a causal association to a medicinal product?
Preclinical or clinical considerations, even if potential risks have not been observed.
What does PBRER mean?
Periodic benefit-risk evaluation report.
What are non-interventional studies used for in pharmacovigilance?
They are a source for solicited reports regarding suspect adverse reactions.
What aspects may indicate a new signal in an adverse reaction?
Changes in frequency, distribution, duration, severity, or outcome.
What is the 'SmPC'?
Summary of product characteristics.
What types of data are evaluated in the benefit-risk analysis?
PSUR data and accumulated safety/efficacy data.
What should be documented to prevent or minimize risks associated with a medicinal product?
Measures and an assessment of the effectiveness of those interventions.
What does an overview of signals include?
Identification and evaluation of new safety signals related to the medicinal product.
What does signal assessment aim to determine?
Whether there are new risks or changes in known risks associated with a medicinal product.
What is the focus of Module VII?
Periodic safety update report.
What type of information is included in Reference Information?
It encompasses key safety and efficacy data about the medicinal product.
What is covered in Module VIII?
Post-authorisation safety studies.
What does a safety concern refer to in pharmacovigilance?
An important identified risk, important potential risk, or missing information.
What is the final outcome expected from the ACO?
A new renewal for the medicinal product.
How is the risk-benefit balance of a medicinal product monitored?
Through pharmacovigilance activities and periodical safety reports like DSURs and PBRERs.
What does Module IX Addendum I discuss?
Methodological aspects of signal detection from spontaneous reports of suspected adverse reactions.
What does Module X cover?
Additional monitoring.
What does section 17.3 focus on?
Characterisation of Benefits.
What changes may occur to Reference Safety Information?
Updates to safety data based on new findings or adverse event reports.
What do section 12 reports consist of?
Other Periodic Reports.
How is the decision made regarding critical missing information in a specific population?
Based on clinical considerations.
How are signals monitored and evaluated?
Continuously by the company.
What information should the Addendum to the Clinical Overview contain?
Relevant safety and efficacy data affecting the benefit-risk assessment.
What are Cumulative Summary Tabulations of Serious Adverse Events?
They provide a summary of serious adverse events recorded during clinical trials.
What is the role of the 'USFDA'?
United States Food & Drug Administration.
What is the focus of Module IX?
Signal management.
What does PSUR stand for?
Periodic safety update report.
What type of information does section 17.1 contain?
Important Baseline Efficacy/Effectiveness Information.
What must the risk management plan established by the marketing authorization holder contain?
A detailed description of the risk management system.
What type of information is covered in section 9?
Information from Other Clinical Trials and Sources.
What does Data in Summary Tabulations represent?
Compiled data showcasing findings from studies and reported adverse events.
What does section 16 cover in relation to signals?
Signal and Risk Evaluation.
What is included in the appendices of the ACO?
Relevant additional information and data supporting the benefit-risk evaluation.
What is the risk-benefit balance?
An evaluation of the positive therapeutic effects of a medicinal product in relation to its associated risks.
What is the first step in the benefit-risk context evaluation?
Discussing medical need and important alternatives.
What does Module VIII Addendum I provide?
Requirements and recommendations for submission of information on non-interventional post-authorisation safety studies.
What does section 16.4 discuss?
Characterisation of Risks.
What does the ICH-E2E Guideline refer to safety concerns as?
Safety issue, used interchangeably with the same definition.
What may justify verificatory action regarding a signal?
A sufficient likelihood of a new potentially causal association.
What is highlighted in section 17.2?
Newly Identified information on Efficacy/Effectiveness.
What type of actions are taken in the Reporting Interval for Safety Reasons?
Any measures implemented to address safety concerns identified during a specific time frame.
What is the relationship between safety concerns and post-marketing experience?
Safety concerns are monitored in relation to post-marketing experience.
What does 'SUSAR' stand for?
Suspected Unexpected Serious Adverse Reaction.
What types of signals are presented in the PSUR/PBRER?
New signals that emerge, remain ongoing, or are closed during the reporting period.
What does the risk-benefit balance evaluate?
The positive effects in relation to risks related to quality, safety, or efficacy concerning patient or public health.
What does PSMF stand for?
Pharmacovigilance system master file.
What is assessed in section 16.5?
Effectiveness of Risk Minimisation (if applicable).
What is a Risk Management Plan (RMP)?
A dynamic document that should be updated throughout the life-cycle of the medicinal product.
What are Other Therapeutic Uses of Medicinal Products?
Additional approved uses of a product beyond its primary indication.
What is PSUR?
Periodic Safety Update Report.
What is the focus of section 11?
Literature.
What defines a signal in pharmacovigilance?
Information suggesting a new potentially causal association or a new aspect of a known association between an intervention and an event.
What is the 'WHO'?
World Health Organization.
What does 'WHO DD' refer to?
WHO Drug Dictionary.
What does 'xEVMPD' stand for?
eXtended EudraVigilance Medicinal Product Dictionary.
What is the significance of New Safety Data Related to Fixed Combination Therapies?
It relates to safety findings impacting medications composed of multiple active ingredients.
What are PBRERs?
Periodic Benefit-Risk Evaluation Reports.
What are Summaries of Significant Findings from Clinical Trials?
Key results and safety findings observed during the reporting period.
What do Cumulative and Interval Summary Tabulations from Post-marketing Data Sources include?
They summarize adverse events reported after a drug has been marketed.
What sources can contribute to a signal?
Observations and experiments.
What is meant by Long-term Follow-up in clinical research?
Monitoring subjects for extended periods after trial completion to assess long-term effects.
What does DSUR stand for?
Development Safety Update Report.
What does section 10 include?
Non-clinical Data.
What issue does section 13 address?
Lack of Efficacy in Controlled Clinical Trials.
What overview is provided in section 15?
Overview of Signals: New, Ongoing, or Closed.
What is evaluated in section 17?
Benefit Evaluation.
What is the meaning of AE?
Adverse Event.
What does ADR stand for?
Adverse Drug Reaction.