How does Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT) differ from traditional Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)?
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Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT) is a type of CBT that emphasizes:
It is particularly effective for borderline personality disorder, mood disorders, eating disorders, substance use disorders, and suicidal ideation.
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How does Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT) differ from traditional Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)?
Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT) is a type of CBT that emphasizes:
It is particularly effective for borderline personality disorder, mood disorders, eating disorders, substance use disorders, and suicidal ideation.
What defines dissociative identity disorder?
What are the primary screening tools for PTSD?
The primary screening tools for PTSD include the Primary Care PTSD Screen and the PTSD Checklist.
What screening tools are used for dissociative disorders?
Screening tools for dissociative disorders include the Dissociative Disorders Interview Schedule, Somatoform Dissociation Questionnaire, and Dissociative Experience Scale.
What assessments should be conducted for dissociative disorders?
Assessments for dissociative disorders should include:
What are the key time periods for screening PTSD in patients?
Key time periods for screening PTSD include:
Additionally, screening is done when clinically indicated and during the Post-Deployment Health Assessment and Periodic Health Assessment.
What is trauma-informed care and its key components?
Trauma-informed care is a care management approach that recognizes the impact of trauma on individuals. Key components include:
What strategies can be used to reduce anxiety in clients with ASD, PTSD, and adjustment disorders?
Strategies to reduce anxiety include:
How can clients with dissociative disorders be supported in decision-making?
Support for clients with dissociative disorders includes:
What are some client education strategies to help manage anxiety?
Client education strategies to manage anxiety include:
What types of medications are commonly used for ASD and PTSD?
Common medications include antidepressants such as SSRIs, SNRIs, mirtazapine, and amitriptyline, which can decrease depressive and anxious symptoms.
What is the role of Prazosin in treating PTSD symptoms?
Prazosin is a centrally-acting alpha agonist that decreases hypervigilance and insomnia in individuals with PTSD.
How does Propranolol help with anxiety and PTSD symptoms?
Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker that decreases elevated vital signs and physical manifestations of anxiety, panic, hypervigilance, and insomnia.
When might medications be prescribed for adjustment disorder and dissociative disorders?
Medications might not be prescribed unless there are specific findings of depression and/or anxiety, in which case the same medications used for ASD and PTSD may be prescribed.
What is the primary goal of CBT (Cognitive Behavioral Therapy)?
The primary goal of CBT is to change distorted thought processes and negative thoughts to improve emotional regulation and develop personal coping strategies.
How does prolonged exposure therapy help reduce anxiety responses?
Prolonged exposure therapy involves relaxation techniques combined with exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli. Repeated exposure leads to a decreased anxiety response over time, whether the exposure is imagined or practiced.
What is the focus of psychodynamic psychotherapy?
Psychodynamic psychotherapy focuses on connecting to both conscious and unconscious thought processes to understand and resolve emotional conflicts.
What are the contraindications for EMDR therapy?
EMDR therapy is contraindicated for individuals with serious mental illness (SMI), suicidal ideation (SI), substance use disorder (SUD), detached retina, or glaucoma.
What is the purpose of biofeedback in therapy?
Biofeedback aims to increase awareness and gain control over reactions to triggers, helping individuals manage their physiological responses.
What is observed about the patient's motor activity?
The patient's motor activity is unremarkable for tics, tremors, or EPS symptoms, but she is pacing and gesturing broadly.
Describe the patient's speech characteristics in the MSE.
The patient's speech is described as pressured and hyperverbal.
What is the patient's mood as reported in the MSE?
The patient reports her mood as 'Amazing'.
How is the patient's affect described?
The patient's affect is described as expansive.
What is meant by abstinence?
Abstinence refers to refraining from the use of substances.
What does recovery entail in substance use contexts?
Recovery is when an individual no longer engages in using substances.
What is compulsivity in relation to substance use?
Compulsivity is the persistent reinitiation of a habitual act despite the potential for adverse consequences.
What is craving in the context of psychoactive substances?
A compelling desire for previously experienced positive or euphoric effects of a psychoactive substance.
Define dependence as it relates to substance use.
The body's physical need for a specific substance, where cessation of use can result in specific withdrawal syndrome.
What is the process of detoxification?
The process of safely and effectively withdrawing an individual from an addictive substance.
What are some influences on mental health?
What are the attributes of mentally healthy individuals?
What is mental health according to the WHO?
Mental health is a state of mental well-being that enables individuals to cope with life's stresses, realize their abilities, learn and work effectively, and contribute to their community. It holds both intrinsic and instrumental value and is essential for overall well-being.
What is a mental illness?
A mental illness is a medical condition that disrupts a person's thinking, feeling, mood, and ability to relate to others, leading to significant dysfunction and an inability to cope with ordinary life demands.
What are the four quadrants of the Mental Health Continuum diagram?
The four quadrants are:
How much earlier do people with serious mental illness (SMI) generally die compared to the general population?
People with serious mental illness (SMI) generally die 10-20 years earlier than the general population.
What are some key themes related to neuropsychiatric disorders that nurses should be aware of?
Key themes include:
What is the purpose of the DSM-5 in the classification of mental illnesses?
The DSM-5 is intended to diagnose and classify disorders based on specific criteria, providing expected assessment findings to assist in planning, implementing, and evaluating care.
What are the five stages of the nursing process?
What are the key factors impacting recovery from mental illness?
The key factors impacting recovery from mental illness include:
| Factor | Description |
|---|---|
| Stigma | Negative perceptions and discrimination that can hinder recovery. |
| Adherence | The extent to which individuals follow treatment plans and recommendations. |
| Access | Availability of mental health services and resources. |
| Hope | The belief in the possibility of recovery and positive outcomes. |
What are the three types of stigma related to mental health?
Public Stigma: The negative attitudes and beliefs held by society towards individuals with mental health issues.
Self-Stigma: The internalization of public stigma by individuals, leading to feelings of shame and reduced self-esteem.
Institutional Stigma: The policies and practices within organizations that discriminate against individuals with mental health issues.
What are the two types of bias that affect mental health?
Implicit Bias: Occurs outside of one's conscious awareness, influencing attitudes and behaviors unconsciously.
Explicit Bias: Involves intentional discrimination and negative behaviors displayed towards individuals based on their mental health status.
What should be assessed when evaluating manifestations of anxiety?
It is important to rule out a physical cause for the anxiety symptoms.
What are some potential causes of anxiety related to medication?
Anxiety can be a side effect of medication or can be substance-induced or due to withdrawal from substances.
What does the GAD-7 measure?
The GAD-7 measures the severity of anxiety and includes items that describe the diagnostic features of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD).
What is the purpose of the Hamilton Rating Scale for Anxiety?
The Hamilton Rating Scale for Anxiety measures the severity of anxiety through 14 items that describe both psychic and somatic symptoms.
What does the Fear Questionnaire assess?
The Fear Questionnaire assesses the presence and impact of phobias.
What age group does the Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale target?
The Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale rates the severity and intensity of obsessive and compulsive behaviors in children and adolescents aged 6-17.
What does the Hoarding Scale Self-Report evaluate?
The Hoarding Scale Self-Report assesses the severity of compulsive hoarding.
What is the focus of the Panic Disorder Severity Scale?
The Panic Disorder Severity Scale is a self-report scale that measures the severity of panic attacks and panic disorder symptoms.
What are the key characteristics of Separation Anxiety Disorder?
How does Agoraphobia affect an individual's life?
What defines Social Phobia and its impact on individuals?
What stereotype suggests that people with personality disorders are inherently abusive?
The stereotype that people with personality disorders are abusive is a harmful generalization that stigmatizes individuals with these conditions, ignoring the complexity of their experiences and behaviors.
How is anxiety inaccurately stereotyped in society?
Anxiety is often inaccurately stereotyped as being synonymous with shyness and quietness, which overlooks the diverse ways anxiety can manifest in individuals.
What misconception exists about Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
A common misconception is that OCD is merely about being very organized, which trivializes the serious and debilitating nature of the disorder.
What is a harmful stereotype regarding psychotic disorders?
A harmful stereotype is that hallucinations and delusions are the only symptoms of psychotic disorders, ignoring other significant symptoms such as disorganized thinking and emotional disturbances.
What gender stereotype is associated with borderline and histrionic personality disorders?
The stereotype that all individuals with borderline or histrionic personality disorders are female perpetuates gender bias and fails to recognize that these disorders can affect any gender.
What stereotype exists about narcissists and antisocial individuals?
The stereotype that all narcissists and antisocial individuals are male reinforces gender biases and overlooks the fact that these disorders can also affect females.
What is a misconception about mental illness in relation to race and gender?
The stereotype that mental illness is primarily a 'white girl problem' is a harmful generalization that ignores the prevalence and impact of mental health issues across diverse populations.
What is the purpose of the nurse-patient relationship according to Hildegard Peplau's theory of interpersonal relations?
The purpose of the nurse-patient relationship is to further the personal development of the patient.
What are the four components of the nurse-patient relationship in Peplau's theory?
The four components of the nurse-patient relationship are:
What are the key activities in the Pre-orientation Phase of the nurse-patient relationship?
What occurs during the Orientation Phase of the nurse-patient relationship?
What are the two main components of the Working Phase in the nurse-patient relationship?
What signifies the end of the nurse-patient relationship?
The Resolution Phase, where the relationship comes to an end.
What is the concept of therapeutic neutrality in nursing?
Therapeutic neutrality involves the nurse being aware of their own beliefs while acknowledging that multiple views exist. The focus should be on the patient's perspective and desires, rather than the nurse's own opinions, to encourage open communication.
How does centering benefit the nurse-patient interaction?
Centering allows the nurse to acknowledge their own feelings, creating a neutral framework for interaction. This helps in maintaining focus on the patient and fosters a supportive environment for communication.
Why is empathy considered a potent tool in nursing?
Empathy is crucial as it validates the patient experience and is recognized as a significant factor in facilitating change and learning. Additionally, nonverbal communication in expressing empathy has twice the impact compared to verbal communication.
What distinguishes active listening from simply hearing?
Active listening goes beyond just hearing words; it involves demonstrating genuine interest in what is being said through both verbal and nonverbal cues, ensuring the patient feels understood and valued.
What is the importance of unconditional positive regard in a therapeutic relationship?
Unconditional positive regard is crucial for developing a therapeutic relationship as it involves meeting patients in a positive, accepting manner, treating them with dignity and respect, and suspending judgment or approval regardless of their history, symptoms, or behaviors.
How can nonverbal communication convey active interest in a therapeutic setting?
Nonverbal communication can convey active interest through:
What is the therapeutic alliance in nursing?
The therapeutic alliance is achieved when the patient can freely discuss their concerns and needs. It is based on the trust established by the nurse with the patient through the therapeutic relationship.
What are the benefits of a strong therapeutic alliance?
A strong therapeutic alliance leads to better patient outcomes, including:
What is the first step in establishing a therapeutic relationship with a patient?
Establish rapport is the first step in building a therapeutic relationship with a patient.
What should be reviewed to understand a patient's current health status?
Review physical status and obtain baseline vital signs (VS) to understand the patient's current health status.
What is the purpose of performing a mental status exam (MSE)?
The purpose of performing a mental status exam (MSE) is to assess the patient's cognitive function and emotional state.
What is an important aspect to assess for patient safety?
Assess for risk factors affecting patient safety or the safety of others.
What should be identified to ensure effective treatment planning?
Identify mutual goals for treatment to ensure that both the patient and healthcare provider are aligned in their objectives.
What is the final step in the initial assessment process?
Formulate a plan of care as the final step in the initial assessment process to address the patient's needs and goals.
What are the key components of verbal communication in a therapeutic setting?
The key components of verbal communication include:
What are the main aspects of nonverbal communication?
The main aspects of nonverbal communication include:
What is the primary purpose of a therapeutic relationship compared to a social relationship?
The primary purpose of a therapeutic relationship is goal-directed to meet the needs and goals of the patient, whereas a social relationship is for enjoyment, pleasure, and to meet mutual needs.
How does the role of individuals differ in social versus therapeutic relationships?
In a social relationship, the role is that of a friend, while in a therapeutic relationship, the role is that of a counselor, educator, or caregiver.
What is the difference in power dynamics between social and therapeutic relationships?
In social relationships, the power is equal, whereas in therapeutic relationships, the nurse has power and authority, leading to unequal access to information and resources.
How does the time frame of social relationships differ from that of therapeutic relationships?
Social relationships may be lifelong, while therapeutic relationships are limited to episodes of care.
What type of communication is used in therapeutic relationships compared to social relationships?
Therapeutic relationships use careful, purposeful, and professional language, while social relationships use casual or colloquial language with shared confidences and intimate disclosures.
In what way does sharing differ between social and therapeutic relationships?
Sharing in social relationships is mutual and equal, while in therapeutic relationships, it is one-sided and focused on the patient, with the patient sharing more than the nurse.
How do the activities and behaviors differ in social versus therapeutic relationships?
Activities in social relationships are spontaneous and based on interests and values, while in therapeutic relationships, they are specific to meeting patient goals and guided by ethical standards.
What is the nature of reciprocity in social relationships compared to therapeutic relationships?
Reciprocity in social relationships is equal between both parties, whereas in therapeutic relationships, it is unequal, with the nurse acting for the benefit of the patient without expectation of return.
What is a broad opening in therapeutic communication?
A broad opening is a technique used to invite the patient to share their thoughts and feelings, such as asking, 'What brings you in today?'.
How can a nurse offer themselves in a therapeutic context?
A nurse can offer themselves by introducing their role and expressing willingness to help, for example, 'I'm the nurse caring for you today. Please let me know how I can help'.
What does neutrality mean in therapeutic communication?
Neutrality involves maintaining an unbiased stance while encouraging the patient to share sensitive information, such as saying, 'You shared that you've had several abortions and prefer not to use birth control. Tell me more about that.'
How can feelings be translated in therapeutic communication?
Feelings can be translated by reflecting the patient's emotions, for instance, 'It sounds like you felt sad and disappointed when you didn't get the job.'
What is the purpose of using silence in therapeutic communication?
Silence allows time and space for self-reflection, giving the patient an opportunity to think and process their feelings.
What does observing entail in therapeutic communication?
Observing involves noticing non-verbal cues from the patient, such as saying, 'I noticed you were crying' or 'Your posture looks very tense'.
What is the role of exploring in therapeutic communication?
Exploring encourages deeper discussion by prompting the patient to elaborate, such as asking, 'Tell me more about that'.
How is paraphrasing used in therapeutic communication?
Paraphrasing involves summarizing the patient's statement in the nurse's own words to ensure understanding and validate the patient's feelings.
What is reframing in therapeutic communication?
Reframing is a technique that helps the patient view their situation differently, for example, 'I know you described your choice to quit your job as "wimping out", but maybe it was an example of you taking care of yourself.'
What does planning involve in therapeutic communication?
Planning involves discussing future steps with the patient, such as asking, 'You said you'd like to find a new job. What steps are you planning to take to accomplish this goal?'.
What is the difference between social responding and therapeutic response in communication?
Social responding involves casual interactions, often using phrases like 'That's normal' or 'It's for your own good.' In contrast, therapeutic responses are more focused on the patient's needs and feelings, aiming to foster understanding and healing.
What does giving advice in a therapeutic context entail?
Giving advice in a therapeutic context means directly telling the patient what to do, often using phrases like 'If I were you...'. This approach can undermine the patient's autonomy and may not be conducive to their healing process.
How does challenging a patient's thoughts or behaviors manifest in therapeutic communication?
Challenging involves directly questioning a patient's thoughts or behaviors, such as asking 'Why did you ...?'. This can help the patient reflect on their actions but must be done sensitively to avoid defensiveness.
What does it mean to judge a patient in therapeutic communication?
Judging refers to responses that suggest the nurse or clinician has rendered a verdict on the patient's thoughts or actions. This can create a barrier to open communication and trust between the patient and clinician.
What is an example of devaluing in therapeutic communication?
An example of devaluing is saying, "Everyone gets nervous," which minimizes the individual's feelings.
What are false reassurances in therapeutic communication?
False reassurances involve statements like, "Now that you’re in treatment, staying off drugs will be much easier," which may not reflect the individual's reality.
What is a problematic type of question in therapeutic communication?
Asking "Why did you do that?" can be problematic as it may put the individual on the defensive and hinder open communication.
What is transference in the context of nursing?
Transference occurs when the patient transfers feelings to the nurse that were originally formed toward a person from the patient's past.
What is countertransference in nursing?
Countertransference refers to the nurse's behavioral and emotional response to the patient, which can be influenced by the nurse's own past experiences and feelings.
What should a nurse do in response to transference and countertransference?
The nurse must acknowledge and reflect on their feelings, and it is important to bracket or set aside personal reactions to maintain a therapeutic relationship.
What are some key strategies for effective communication in therapeutic relationships?
Speak briefly and allow adequate time for responses, as some individuals may need more time.
Ensure basic needs are met, such as hunger, thirst, and temperature.
When unsure of what to say, say nothing; silence can be a powerful tool.
Focus on feelings when in doubt.
Keep the focus on the patient by demonstrating a caring attitude, being open, direct, truthful, and sincere.
Show reliability and use empathy to build trust.
Practice active listening by using nonverbal cues to convey interest.
Why are boundaries important in nurse-patient relationships?
Boundaries are essential to maintain a safe and professional nurse-patient relationship. They help to establish clear roles, protect patient confidentiality, and ensure that the care provided is ethical and respectful.
What constitutes a boundary violation in nursing?
A boundary violation occurs when an action or behavior oversteps normal professional boundaries to meet the nurse's needs. Examples include:
What is the importance of maintaining boundaries in therapeutic relationships?
Maintaining boundaries in therapeutic relationships is crucial for several reasons:
What is the cyclical relationship between unmet needs and aggression?
The cycle begins with Unmet Need/Goal, leading to Anxiety. This anxiety causes Frustration, which then escalates to Anger, ultimately resulting in Aggression. This aggression can circle back to the top, indicating that unmet needs can perpetuate the cycle.
What are the early signs of escalation in behavior?
What facial cues indicate imminent danger during escalation?
What body language indicators suggest imminent danger?
What are some key strategies for effective communication with patients?
What is the recommended posture for a nurse to maintain during patient interactions?
The recommended posture for a nurse is to be relaxed, with hands open and in front of the body, while minimizing movement such as fidgeting or excessive gestures.
How should a nurse modulate their voice during patient interactions?
A nurse should maintain a calm voice and avoid escalating the volume during interactions with patients.
What is the ideal positioning of a nurse in relation to a patient and exits?
The nurse should position themselves at a 45-degree angle to the patient, ensuring they do not block exits while also making sure the patient is not positioned between the nurse and the door.
What is the primary nursing goal when establishing a therapeutic relationship with a patient?
To promote patient growth
What is the goal of a therapeutic nursing interaction?
The goal of a therapeutic nursing interaction is to promote patient insight and behavioral change directed toward patient growth.
What is the appropriate interaction for a nurse to employ during the pre-orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship when a patient threatens self-harm and harm to others?
The nurse should focus on acknowledging the patient's actions and encouraging alternative behaviors to ensure safety and address the immediate risk of harm.
What is the purpose of the preorientation phase in nursing care?
The purpose of the preorientation phase is to identify personal attitudes and beliefs that may affect how care is delivered to the patient.
How should the nurse respond to an older male patient expressing overwhelming affection towards her, stating he doesn't know what he would do without her?
The nurse should help the patient clarify the meaning of the relationship. This approach allows the patient to explore his feelings in a safe environment and understand the nature of his attachment.
What is transference in the context of nursing and patient relationships?
Transference is a phenomenon where a patient unconsciously displaces feelings about a person from their past onto the nurse, affecting the nurse-patient relationship.
How should a nurse respond to a patient's transference?
The nurse should clarify the meaning of the nurse-patient relationship based on the present situation to help the patient understand their feelings and the dynamics of the relationship.
What are the characteristics of human nature as described in the text?
What are the five levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
How does Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs relate to mental health?
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs suggests that individuals must satisfy lower-level needs (like physiological and safety needs) before they can address higher-level needs (like love, esteem, and self-actualization). This framework implies that unmet basic needs can hinder mental health and well-being, as individuals may struggle to achieve self-actualization without first feeling secure and connected.
What are the three parts of the personality according to Psychoanalytic Theory?
The three parts of the personality are Id, Ego, and Superego.
Who developed the Psychoanalytic Theory?
The Psychoanalytic Theory was developed by Sigmund Freud.
What does Psychodynamic Theory emphasize about human behavior?
Psychodynamic Theory emphasizes that human behavior is influenced by childhood experiences and involves contributions from multiple theorists.
What is a key debate in Psychodynamic Theory regarding human behavior?
A key debate in Psychodynamic Theory is Nature vs Nurture.
What is the main focus of Interpersonal Theory as developed by Harry Stack Sullivan?
Interpersonal Theory emphasizes that human behavior is shaped by our interpersonal relationships and social experiences.
Who are the key figures associated with Behavioral Theory and what are their contributions?
The key figures in Behavioral Theory include:
What are the main developmental stages in Sullivan's Interpersonal Developmental Stages?
Sullivan's Interpersonal Developmental Stages span from birth to age 21, highlighting the importance of interpersonal relationships during this critical period of development.
What is a psychiatric emergency?
A psychiatric emergency is a crisis in which an individual's general functioning is severely impaired, rendering them incompetent or unable to assume personal responsibility for their behavior.
What are the key characteristics of Phase One in a crisis?
What occurs during Phase Two of a crisis?
What are the main features of Phase Three in a crisis?
What are the consequences of Phase Four in a crisis?
What type of crisis is a new mother experiencing when she feels anxious and ambivalent about leaving the postpartum unit?
This type of crisis is precipitated by normal life-cycle transitions that overwhelm the client.
What does Cognitive Theory suggest about human behavior?
Cognitive Theory suggests that human behavior is influenced by an individual's thought process, where thinking leads to certain emotions. It can be used to explore maladaptive thought patterns and challenge biases.
Who are the key figures associated with Humanistic Theory?
The key figures associated with Humanistic Theory include Abraham Maslow, Carl Rogers, and James F.T. Bugental.
What is the fundamental belief of Humanistic Theory regarding individuals?
Humanistic Theory is based on the belief that people are innately good, and that mental or social illness causes deviations from this inherent goodness.
What is the Biopsychosocial Model Theory?
The Biopsychosocial Model Theory, developed by George L. Engel, posits that mental health disorders are a malfunction within the body, influenced by biological, psychological, and social factors. It emphasizes the interconnectedness of these domains in understanding health and illness.
What are the three components of the Biopsychosocial Model?
The three components of the Biopsychosocial Model are:
What is the significance of the overlap in the Biopsychosocial Model?
The overlap in the Biopsychosocial Model represents Whole Person Health, which includes concepts like neurotags, empathy, and validation. This highlights the importance of considering all three domains (biological, psychological, and social) for a comprehensive understanding of health.
What are the key developmental theories that describe behavioral differences across the lifespan?
The key developmental theories include those proposed by Piaget, Kohlberg, Freud, and Erikson. These theories focus on distinct stages of social, emotional, and cognitive development from childhood through adulthood.
What is the significance of Erik Erikson's Stages of Psychosocial Development?
Erik Erikson's Stages of Psychosocial Development outline stages from birth to death, each with specific tasks or goals that ideally should be achieved. This framework helps nurses identify the development of personality throughout a person's life.
What is the psychosocial crisis/task for infants aged 0 to 18 months according to Erikson's stages?
Trust vs Mistrust
What virtue is developed during the stage of Autonomy vs Shame/Doubt (18 months - 3 years)?
Will
What is the psychosocial crisis/task for children aged 3 to 5 years?
Initiative vs Guilt
During which age range does the crisis of Industry vs Inferiority occur?
5-13 years
What virtue is developed during the stage of Identity vs Confusion (13-21 years)?
Fidelity
What is the psychosocial crisis/task for young adults aged 21 to 39 years?
Intimacy vs Isolation
What virtue is developed during the stage of Generativity vs Stagnation (40-65 years)?
Care
What is the psychosocial crisis/task for individuals aged 65 and older?
Integrity vs Despair
What is the main focus of Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)?
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) focuses on the relationship between core beliefs, thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. It emphasizes that changing negative thought patterns can lead to changes in feelings and behaviors.
Who developed Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT)?
Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT) was developed by Marsha Linehan.
What are the components of the 'Wise Mind' in Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT)?
The 'Wise Mind' in DBT is the synthesis of two opposites: Reasonable Mind (facts and logic without emotions) and Emotion Mind (emotions controlling thinking and behavior without reason).
What is the focus of Psychoanalytic therapy?
Psychoanalytic therapy examines the unconscious mind and how it influences an individual's thoughts, feelings, or behaviors.
How does Behavioral therapy aim to help clients?
Behavioral therapy focuses on modifying a client's maladaptive behaviors and patterns, encouraging adaptive behaviors instead.
What is the main concept behind Cognitive therapy?
Cognitive therapy posits that problems can stem from an individual's past but are guided and maintained by what is happening in the present.
What approach does Cognitive Behavioral therapy use to address anxiety?
Cognitive Behavioral therapy considers how a client's feelings influence their behaviors or thoughts and uses both cognitive and behavioral approaches to decrease anxiety.
What does Biological therapy involve?
Biological therapy involves treatment that alters the individual's psychological functioning, which can be pharmacological or brain-stimulating therapy.
What is the goal of Individual therapy?
The goal of Individual therapy is to reduce or eliminate clients' manifestations to promote well-being, allowing them to continue with daily life.
What is the purpose of Group therapy?
Group therapy is a psychosocial therapy where multiple clients meet with a therapist to share ideas and insights for improving coping skills.
What is the focus of Family therapy?
Family therapy focuses on working as a unit, addressing the family as a whole rather than just the individuals.
What is the aim of Milieu therapy?
Milieu therapy aims to control the environment to assist the client in preventing self-destructive or maladaptive behaviors.
What are some key responsibilities of a nurse in relation to therapy?
What is the difference between ethics, morals, values, and rights?
What are the core ethical principles in nursing?
The core ethical principles include:
What are the ethical and legal issues specific to psychiatric mental health nursing?
Key issues include:
What is the distinction between statutory and common law?
How do malpractice and negligence differ in psychiatric settings?
| Aspect | Malpractice | Negligence |
|---|---|---|
| Definition | Professional misconduct or failure to meet standards of care | General failure to exercise reasonable care |
| Example | A nurse fails to monitor a patient’s medication side effects, leading to harm | A nurse forgets to secure a patient’s belongings, resulting in loss |
What are the civil rights that individuals with a mental health diagnosis have?
Individuals with a mental health diagnosis have the same civil rights as others, including:
What are some specific rights that individuals receiving mental health care have?
Individuals receiving mental health care have additional specific rights, including:
What are the key components of informed consent in mental health settings?
The key components of informed consent include:
Note: No diagnosis or symptom automatically negates the ability to give consent.
Under what circumstances can a patient’s right to refuse treatment be overridden?
A patient’s right to refuse treatment can be overridden in cases where immediate intervention is necessary to prevent:
What is the role of providers in obtaining informed consent in mental health settings?
Providers such as MDs, DOs, and ARNPs are responsible for obtaining informed consent from patients before treatment, ensuring that patients are fully informed about their treatment options and the associated risks and benefits.
What evidence supports the use of involuntary medication in mental health treatment?
Evidence supports the long-term benefits of involuntary medication, particularly in conditions such as:
This suggests that involuntary treatment can be crucial for stabilizing patients who may not be able to make informed decisions about their care.
What is the difference between capacity and competence in the context of healthcare decisions?
Capacity is a clinical determination that assesses whether an individual can make healthcare decisions, which is fluid and specific to time and decision. It involves the patient's ability to:
Competence, on the other hand, is a legal concept determined by a court. It does not fluctuate and incompetent individuals do not have the legal right to make decisions. A declaration of incompetence must be reversed by the court. Evidence considered for competence includes:
What does the term 'Least Restrictive Alternative' refer to in psychiatric care?
The term 'Least Restrictive Alternative' refers to the principle that psychiatric care should be provided in the least restrictive environment possible, which can include options such as:
This approach aims to respect the rights and freedoms of individuals while ensuring their safety and well-being.
What historical change occurred regarding involuntary hospitalization in 1976?
In 1976, a significant Supreme Court ruling established that individuals could not be hospitalized against their will without due process, marking a shift towards respecting the rights of patients in mental health settings.
What is HIPAA and what does it protect?
HIPAA is a federal law that protects the privacy and security of Protected Health Information (PHI) by regulating its collection, storage, and disclosure by 'covered entities'.
What are the key responsibilities of a nurse regarding patient confidentiality?
A nurse must:
What is the 'duty to warn' as established by the Tarasoff case?
The 'duty to warn' requires healthcare professionals, including nurses, to protect third parties if a patient poses a serious threat to another person, as established in the Tarasoff v Regents of the University of California case in 1976.
What are the mandatory reporting requirements for child and elder abuse?
Healthcare professionals are required to report any suspected child or elder abuse to the appropriate authorities as part of mandatory reporting laws.
What are the key points to document regarding client behavior in mental health settings?
What should be included in the documentation of staff response to client behavior?
What information should be documented regarding the time the provider was notified?
What details should be included in the documentation of medication administration?
What is the least restrictive form of admission for treatment in mental health facilities?
Informal admission is the least restrictive form of admission for treatment.
What distinguishes voluntary admission from involuntary admission in mental health facilities?
Voluntary admission is when the client or guardian chooses admission to obtain treatment, while involuntary admission occurs when the client enters the facility against their will for an indefinite amount of time.
What is the purpose of temporary emergency admission in mental health facilities?
Temporary emergency admission is for clients who are admitted for emergent care due to their inability to make decisions regarding their care.
What criteria are used for involuntary admission in mental health facilities?
Involuntary admission is based on the need for psychiatric treatment, risk of harm to self or others, or inability to provide self-care (grave disability).
How does long-term involuntary admission differ from temporary emergency admission?
Long-term involuntary admission is similar to temporary commitment but must be imposed by the courts and typically lasts between 60-180 days, whereas temporary emergency admission is usually shorter and based on immediate need.
What are the characteristics of ethical dilemmas in mental health settings?
What resources can be utilized to address ethical issues in nursing?
What is the principle of Autonomy in nursing ethics?
Autonomy refers to respecting an individual's right to make their own decisions. For example, a nurse helps a client explore alternatives rather than giving direct advice when the client struggles with decision-making.
How does the principle of Beneficence apply in nursing practice?
Beneficence is the quality of doing good. An example is when a nurse assists a newly admitted client with a psychotic disorder to feel safe in the mental health facility environment.
What does Fidelity mean in the context of nursing ethics?
Fidelity involves loyalty and keeping promises to individuals. For instance, a nurse remains with a client during a conversation with their guardian as requested by the client.
Explain the principle of Justice in nursing ethics.
Justice refers to fair and equal treatment for all individuals. An example is a nurse leading a discussion in a treatment team meeting about whether two clients who broke the same rule were treated equally.
What is the significance of Non-maleficence in nursing?
Non-maleficence means never doing harm to any individual. For example, a nurse may withhold a prescribed medication after a client reports severe side effects, ensuring no further harm while consulting for an alternative treatment.
Define Veracity in the context of nursing ethics.
Veracity is the principle of honesty when dealing with individuals. For instance, if a client questions a nurse about a conversation, the nurse should respond truthfully about the discussion's intent to help the client.
What is the main principle of Utilitarianism?
Utilitarianism promotes actions that produce the most good (happiness) for the most people.
How does Kantianism approach ethical decision making?
Kantianism suggests that decisions and actions are bound by a sense of duty.
What is the focus of Divine Command Ethics in ethical decision making?
Divine Command Ethics focuses on actions that are commanded by God.
What does Natural Law Theory emphasize in decision making?
Natural Law Theory emphasizes human knowledge of the difference between good and evil to guide decision making.
What is the basis of Ethical Egoism?
Ethical Egoism bases decisions on what is best for the individual making the decision.
What are the prescribed conditions for using seclusion and restraint in a clinical setting?
Seclusion and restraint should be prescribed for the shortest possible time and only after less restrictive measures fail, such as:
What are the purposes of using seclusion and restraint?
Seclusion and restraint are used for the physical protection of the patient or those around the patient. They should not be used for:
What are the four types of restraints used in clinical settings?
The four types of restraints are:
| Type | Description |
|---|---|
| Physical | Restraining limbs (e.g., 4 persons to provide care) |
| Moving a person to another location against their will | |
| Environmental | Seclusion room |
| Half doors, barricades | |
| WanderGuard | |
| Secure units | |
| Mechanical | Limb, waist, and trunk restraints |
| Back-fastening seat belt | |
| Full bed-side rails | |
| Chair with locking table | |
| Pharmacologic | Antipsychotics |
| Antidepressants | |
| Sedatives | |
| Benzodiazepines |
What are the time limits for seclusion and restraint based on age?
| Age Group | Time Limit |
|---|---|
| 18+ | 4 hours |
| 9-17 | 2 hours |
| <8 | 1 hour |
What documentation is required every 15 minutes during seclusion and restraint?
Documentation must include:
What must a provider do before initiating seclusion or restraint?
A provider must write an order for seclusion or restraint. They can initiate it emergently but must have the order within 15 minutes.
How often must a provider reassess a patient in seclusion or restraint?
A provider must reassess the patient every 24 hours.
What should be documented regarding the patient's condition during seclusion or restraint?
Documentation should include:
What is a tort in the context of mental health?
A tort is a civil wrong-doing where one party claims wrongful conduct on the part of another and seeks compensation. It can be either intentional or unintentional.
What are the characteristics of intentional torts in mental health?
Intentional torts involve willful actions that damage a person's property or violate their rights. Examples include:
What distinguishes unintentional torts from intentional torts in mental health?
Unintentional torts involve actions or inactions that cause unintended harm due to failing to fulfill one's duty. Key examples include:
What ethical principle is demonstrated when a patient with anorexia is allowed to choose what they want for breakfast?
Autonomy is demonstrated as the patient is given the right to make their own choices regarding their food intake.
What ethical principle is illustrated by placing an agitated patient attempting to hurt others in seclusion?
Beneficence is illustrated as the action is taken to protect the patient and others from harm.
What ethical principle is shown when the nurse tells the client they will go for a walk later and returns to escort the client outside?
Fidelity is shown as the nurse keeps their promise to the client, maintaining trust in the therapeutic relationship.
What ethical principle is involved when the nurse withholds medication after the patient reported a reaction to it?
Nonmaleficence is involved as the nurse acts to prevent harm to the patient by withholding the medication that caused a reaction.
What ethical principle is reflected when a patient is given choices about which activities to participate in?
Autonomy is reflected as the patient is empowered to make decisions about their own care and activities.
Which patient would be appropriate for involuntary admission due to the risk of harm to self or others?
A patient experiencing delusions and psychosis who assaulted another person would be appropriate for involuntary admission due to the immediate risk they pose to others.
Which patient is at risk for involuntary admission due to previous suicidal behavior?
A patient with severe depression who attempted suicide 6 months ago is at risk for involuntary admission due to their history of self-harm.
Which patient experiencing mania with psychotic features may require involuntary admission?
A client experiencing mania with psychotic features may require involuntary admission if they are a danger to themselves or others due to their condition.
Which patient with bipolar disorder may be considered for involuntary admission due to agitation?
A patient with bipolar disorder who appears agitated and is quickly pacing the halls may be considered for involuntary admission if their behavior poses a risk to themselves or others.
What are the categories of crises and crisis interventions?
Categories of crises include:
Crisis interventions can include:
What is the role of nurses in crisis response?
Nurses play a crucial role in crisis response by:
What are the different types of violence and sexual assault?
Types of violence include:
Sexual assault can be categorized as:
What interventions are used in the care of patients who are violent or have experienced violence?
Interventions for patients who are violent or have experienced violence include:
What factors are important for a nurse's self-awareness and self-care when exposed to crisis and/or violence?
Important factors for a nurse's self-awareness and self-care include:
What factors determine whether an individual experiences a crisis in response to a stressful situation?
Three factors determine this:
What is a crisis and how is it characterized?
A crisis is an acute, time-limited event (approximately 4-6 weeks) that cannot be managed with the client's normal coping mechanisms. It is personal in nature, representing a struggle for equilibrium and adaptation, and can result in either psychological deterioration or growth. Characteristics of a crisis include:
What is a dispositional crisis and what triggers it?
A dispositional crisis is a response to an external situational stressor, such as a divorce or job change.
What characterizes a crisis of anticipated life transitions?
A crisis of anticipated life transitions, also known as maturational developmental crises, involves normal life-cycle transitions that may be anticipated but can leave the individual feeling a lack of control, requiring new coping mechanisms.
What defines a crisis resulting from traumatic stress?
A crisis resulting from traumatic stress, termed adventitious, is triggered by an unexpected external stressor that leaves the individual feeling emotionally overwhelmed and defeated, with little or no control over the situation.
How does a crisis reflecting psychopathology manifest?
A crisis reflecting psychopathology is an emotional crisis influenced or triggered by pre-existing psychopathology, such as personality disorders, bipolar disorders, or schizophrenia.
What is the primary goal of crisis intervention in nursing?
The primary goal of crisis intervention is the resolution of the individual's immediate crisis and restoration to at least the level of functioning that existed before the crisis period, or possibly to a higher level of functioning.
What are the four phases of crisis intervention?
What is the nurse's role in managing mood symptoms during a crisis?
The nurse should focus on managing anxiety and other mood symptoms associated with the crisis by providing support, reassurance, and therapeutic interventions to help stabilize the client's emotional state.
How can nurses assist clients in developing coping skills during a crisis?
Nurses can assist clients by:
What is the purpose of crisis counseling in the context of crisis intervention?
Crisis counseling aims to provide brief, solution-based therapy that instills hope in clients, helping them to navigate their crisis and develop a plan for moving forward.
What are some key actions nurses can take to promote connections with social and resource supports during a crisis?
Nurses can:
What are the key components to assess during the initial phase of crisis intervention?
What is the first step in planning a therapeutic intervention?
The first step is to gather assessment data.
What should the RN consider when selecting appropriate nursing actions for a patient?
The RN should consider the urgency/emergency of the situation and the identified diagnosis.
What factors should be accounted for when planning interventions in a therapeutic setting?
Interventions should account for the type of crisis, the individual's strengths, their desired choices, and the available resources.
What is the goal of establishing goals during crisis resolution?
The goal is to plan for a return to, or increase in, the precrisis level of functioning.
What are the key actions to implement during the intervention phase of crisis management?
The key actions include:
What are the key objectives to reassess during the evaluation of crisis resolution?
The key objectives to reassess include:
What should be summarized along with the individual during the evaluation phase?
During the evaluation phase, a summary of what has occurred during the intervention should be discussed with the individual.
What is developed for the individual to manage stressors in the future during the evaluation phase?
A plan of action is developed for the individual to deal with the stressor should it reoccur.
What are the categories of medications used in crisis intervention?
Benzodiazepines (short-term):
Antidepressants (longer term):
What are the three levels of care in crisis intervention and their focus?
Primary care: Identify potential problems, coping mechanisms, and lifestyle changes.
Secondary care: Identify interventions that promote safety.
Tertiary care: Provide support during recovery from severe crisis, including outpatient clinics, rehab centers, crisis stabilization centers, short-term residential services, and workshops.
What are some common characteristics of anger?
What are some characteristics of aggression?
How can inappropriately expressed anger lead to aggression?
Inappropriately expressed anger can escalate into aggression, resulting in verbal or physical attacks.
What underlying feelings may aggressive individuals experience?
Aggressive individuals may have feelings of inadequacy, insecurity, guilt, fear, and rejection.
What is the definition of violence in the context of aggression?
Violence is a goal-directed act with the intent of harming a specific person or object.
What are the key risk factors for anger and aggression?
What are some common comorbid diagnoses associated with anger and aggression?
What are the key strategies for managing anger and aggression in a patient-centered care approach?
Set limits:
What are the categories of medications mentioned for managing mental health conditions?
What are the key components of debriefing with clients after an incident?
What should staff evaluate during the debriefing process after an incident?
What is the definition of abuse?
Abuse is the maltreatment of one person by another, involving the purposeful use of force that results in physical and/or psychological injuries or death.
What percentage of women and men have reported being victims of sexual violence, physical violence, or stalking by an intimate partner according to the National Intimate Partner and Sexual Violence Survey?
1 in 4 women and 1 in 10 men have reported being victims of sexual violence and/or physical violence and/or stalking by an intimate partner.
How do adverse childhood experiences (ACEs) impact individuals?
Adverse childhood experiences (ACEs) have a major impact on health and well-being throughout life.
Does abuse affect specific populations more than others?
No, abuse affects all populations equally, regardless of race, religion, economic class, age, and educational background.
What is a common background characteristic of many abusers?
Many abusers were themselves victims of abuse as children.
What are the different types of violence?
Physical: Involves physical pain or harm, such as shaken baby syndrome, strangling, striking, kicking, or pushing.
Sexual: Involves sexual contact without consent.
Emotional: Includes behaviors that minimize an individual's feelings of self-worth, such as humiliation, threatening, or intimidating.
Neglect: Refers to the failure to provide necessary physical care, emotional care, education, or medical care.
Economic: Involves the failure to provide for the needs of a vulnerable person when means are available.
What are the different types of violence that nurses must prepare to deal with?
Nurses must prepare to deal with various types of violence including:
Additionally, a history of violence and criminal activity is the most significant predictor of future violence.
What are some characteristics of vulnerable individuals who may be victims of abuse?
What are common characteristics of perpetrators of abuse?
What are the characteristics of the Tension Building Stage in the Cycle of Violence?
What occurs during the Acute Battering Stage of the Cycle of Violence?
Describe the Honeymoon Stage in the Cycle of Violence.
How do periods of escalation and de-escalation manifest in the Cycle of Violence?
What are some risk factors for domestic violence?
What are the key components to consider when conducting a nursing assessment?
What signs may indicate potential abuse in children during a nursing assessment?
What are the signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in infants?
What is the importance of mandatory reporting in nursing care for clients in abusive relationships?
Mandatory reporting ensures that healthcare professionals report suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities, which can help protect clients and facilitate access to necessary resources and support.
How can nurses support clients in abusive relationships at their current level?
Nurses can provide support by offering basic care, developing a safety plan, and educating clients about available resources and coping strategies.
What role does Maslow's hierarchy play in caring for clients in abusive relationships?
Maslow's hierarchy helps nurses understand the client's needs, prioritizing safety and basic physiological needs before addressing higher-level psychological and social needs.
What types of community resources should nurses be aware of when assisting clients in abusive relationships?
Nurses should know about support groups, case management services, and options for family relocation to help clients find safety and support.
What skills should be developed to assist clients in abusive relationships?
Skills such as problem-solving, stress management, and knowledge of community resources are essential for helping clients navigate their situations effectively.
What should the school nurse consider when assessing the symptoms of a 12-year-old girl who refuses to change for gym, participate in physical activities, has difficulty walking and sitting, and will not eat her food at lunchtime?
The school nurse should consider the following potential issues:
What are some reasons people might stay in abusive relationships?
People may stay in abusive relationships due to a variety of factors, including:
What steps can be taken to gather more information if partner violence is suspected?
To gather more information if partner violence is suspected, consider the following steps:
What biases might individuals have regarding abuse and those involved?
Common biases regarding abuse, abusers, and victims may include:
What resources can be offered to patients suspected of being victims of violence?
Resources that can be offered to patients suspected of being victims of violence include:
What are some forms of sexual assault?
Forms of sexual assault include:
Who can be a victim or perpetrator of sexual assault?
Anyone can be a victim or perpetrator of sexual assault, including:
What are some consequences of sexual violence for survivors?
Survivors of sexual violence can suffer:
What are some examples of sexual violence beyond physical assault?
Examples of sexual violence include:
What are the common substances associated with date/acquaintance rape?
The common substances include:
What are key considerations for assessing a victim of rape?
Key considerations include:
What types of rape are identified in the content?
The types of rape identified include:
What is a critical aspect of the environment when assessing a victim of rape?
A critical aspect is to ensure a private environment to provide comfort and confidentiality during the assessment process.
What is the nature of rape as described in the content?
Rape is characterized as a crime of violence, involving aggression, anger, and power dynamics.
What is Rape-Trauma Syndrome?
A sustained and maladaptive response to sexual assault.
What are the initial emotional reactions that can occur after a sexual assault?
Initial emotional reactions can be expressed or controlled reactions.
What emotions can a person experience after a sexual assault?
Emotions can include embarrassment, revenge, guilt, anger, fear, anxiety, and denial, which can persist and become maladaptive.
What is Acute Stress Disorder and how long does it last?
Acute Stress Disorder appears within 3 days of the trauma and persists for no more than one month.
What are the characteristics of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
PTSD persists beyond one month and includes reliving the event, hyperarousal, avoidance, fears, phobias, difficulty in daily functioning, and somatic responses.
What are the characteristics of a compound rape reaction?
A compound rape reaction involves experiencing additional disorders such as mental health disorders (e.g., depression, anxiety, substance-use disorders) and physical disorders (e.g., manifestations of prior physical illness, gastrointestinal issues, headaches, fatigue).
What are the signs of a silent rape reaction?
Signs of a silent rape reaction include:
What are some common psychological effects experienced by victims of rape and sexual assault?
Victims may experience sleep disturbances, depression, anxiety, depersonalization, dissociation, flashbacks, or nightmares.
What barriers might prevent individuals from seeking help after experiencing sexual assault?
Barriers include shame, self-blame, and fear of retaliation.
What is a recommended action for victims of sexual assault regarding support?
Victims are encouraged to seek support or counseling to aid in their recovery process.
What is a common societal issue that affects victims of sexual assault?
Victim-blaming is a common societal issue that affects victims, often leading to further psychological distress.
What is the first principle of trauma-informed care?
Safety - allow patients to feel physically and emotionally safe.
How can trustworthiness and transparency be established in trauma-informed care?
By being straightforward and honest with patients.
What role does peer support play in trauma-informed care?
It involves having trauma support persons who have shared lived-experience with the patients.
Why is collaboration important in trauma-informed care?
It makes patients active participants in their own care, enhancing their sense of control and involvement.
What does empowerment mean in the context of trauma-informed care?
It involves acknowledging the patient's strengths and helping them feel capable and in control.
What is the significance of humility and responsiveness in trauma-informed care?
It requires being aware of biases and stereotypes, and being mindful of language used with patients.
What is the first tip for caring for patients with past traumas?
Assume every patient has experienced trauma.
How should healthcare providers anticipate re-traumatization in patients?
By remembering that the patient is in control of their own body and being sensitive to their needs.
Why is it important to respect boundaries and privacy when caring for trauma patients?
It helps to create a safe environment and fosters trust between the patient and provider.
What is the role of therapeutic communication in caring for patients with past traumas?
It facilitates open dialogue, helps build trust, and allows patients to express their feelings and concerns.
How can patients be empowered to be in charge during their care?
By involving them in decision-making processes and respecting their choices and preferences.
Why is it important to keep patients informed throughout their procedures?
It helps to reduce anxiety and fosters a sense of control and trust in the healthcare process.
What is the purpose of the mental status examination in nursing practice?
The mental status examination is used to assess a patient's cognitive, emotional, and psychological functioning, which aids in early identification and better management of mental illness, ultimately improving patient outcomes.
What are the key components of the mental status examination?
The key components of the mental status examination include:
How can the mental status examination improve patient outcomes?
The mental status examination can improve patient outcomes by:
What is the purpose of the Mental Status Examination (MSE)?
The MSE is a structured assessment used to evaluate a patient's current mental state, providing a snapshot of their condition at the time of the assessment. It is a standard part of the psychiatric interview and offers information about diagnosis, treatment, and response to treatment.
How is information obtained during the Mental Status Examination?
Information during the MSE is obtained through observation and formal questioning, collecting both subjective and objective data.
What are the notable aspects of the patient's appearance in the MSE?
The patient is a well-nourished, 50-year-old female who appears her stated age, is clean, and well-groomed.
How does the patient's behavior manifest in the MSE?
The patient shows no acute distress, is laughing and smiling inappropriately, is flirtatious with staff, and is difficult to redirect at times.
What is the nature of the patient's thought process?
The patient's thought process is characterized by flight of ideas.
What grandiose delusion does the patient express in the MSE?
The patient expresses a grandiose delusion stating, 'I am God's messenger, sent here to cure the world.'
What perceptual disturbances does the patient experience?
The patient endorses auditory hallucinations and appears to be actively responding to internal stimuli.
How is the patient's orientation assessed in the MSE?
The patient is alert and oriented to self.
What cognitive difficulties does the patient exhibit?
The patient shows poor cognition as evidenced by an inability to maintain focus or concentration.
What insight does the patient demonstrate regarding her condition?
The patient demonstrates poor insight, as indicated by her declining medication.
What are the key components of a mental status examination?
The key components of a mental status examination include:
| Component | Description |
|---|---|
| Appearance | Observations about the individual's physical appearance and grooming. |
| Behavior | Assessment of the individual's actions and interactions. |
| Motor | Evaluation of movement and physical activity. |
| Speech | Analysis of speech patterns, rate, and clarity. |
| Affect/Mood | Observation of emotional expression and mood state. |
| Thought Process | Examination of the organization and flow of thoughts. |
| Thought Content | Assessment of the themes and ideas expressed in thoughts. |
| Perception | Evaluation of sensory experiences and reality testing. |
| Orientation | Assessment of awareness of time, place, and person. |
| Cognition | Evaluation of memory, attention, and problem-solving abilities. |
| Insight | Assessment of the individual's awareness of their condition. |
| Judgement | Evaluation of decision-making and reasoning abilities. |
What facial expressions should be assessed during a mental health evaluation?
Facial expressions to assess include:
How does poor grooming relate to Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?
In Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), individuals often exhibit poor grooming and poor hygiene as symptoms of their condition.
What are some physical signs associated with Anorexia Nervosa (AN)?
Physical signs associated with Anorexia Nervosa (AN) include:
What visible signs might indicate Substance Use Disorder (SUD)?
Visible signs that may indicate Substance Use Disorder (SUD) include:
What clothing and grooming characteristics might be observed in individuals experiencing Mania?
In individuals experiencing Mania, one might observe:
What grooming issues are commonly seen in individuals with Dementia?
Common grooming issues in individuals with Dementia include:
What negative symptoms might be experienced by individuals with Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders (SSD)?
Individuals with Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders (SSD) may experience negative symptoms, which can include poor grooming and hygiene.
What behaviors are associated with an agitated state during assessment?
Behaviors associated with an agitated state include lip smacking, scanning, and clenched fists.
What are common behaviors observed in individuals with anxiety?
Common behaviors in individuals with anxiety include pacing, wringing hands, and rocking.
What behaviors might indicate a person is apprehensive?
Apprehensive individuals may display behaviors such as being watchful and socially withdrawn.
What are the characteristics of ritualistic behavior?
Ritualistic behavior is characterized by repeated actions such as looking, turning, and stepping.
What behaviors are indicative of a demanding individual?
Demanding individuals often exhibit behaviors such as making demands of staff.
What does it mean when someone is described as withdrawn?
A withdrawn individual tends to avoid or not seek social interactions.
How does Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) manifest in behavior?
In Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), individuals often appear withdrawn.
What behaviors are associated with mania?
Behaviors associated with mania include being demanding, provocative, seductive, and flirtatious.
What are the behavioral characteristics of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Individuals with OCD often display repetitive and ritualistic behaviors.
What behaviors are typical in Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
Typical behaviors in Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) include fidgeting and pacing.
What type of behavior is associated with Schizotypal Personality Disorder?
Schizotypal Personality Disorder is characterized by odd and eccentric behavior.
How do individuals with Antisocial Personality Disorder typically behave?
Individuals with Antisocial Personality Disorder often exhibit calm, manipulative, and demanding behavior.
What are the key components to assess in motor function?
Why is the assessment of motor function important in mental health?
What are the different types of speech quantity observed in assessments?
How does speech tone vary in different mental health conditions?
What is echolalia in speech assessment?
Echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by another person, often observed in certain mental health conditions.
What does 'word salad' refer to in speech assessment?
'Word salad' refers to a group of words randomly put together, lacking coherent meaning, often seen in severe mental health disorders.
What is the significance of prosody in speech?
Prosody reflects emotion in speech, indicating the speaker's feelings and can be crucial in assessing mental health conditions.
What is anhedonia and why is it significant in mood assessment?
Anhedonia is the inability to feel pleasure. It is significant in mood assessment as it is a key symptom of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), indicating a profound impact on an individual's emotional well-being.
How does dysphoria differ from euthymic mood?
Dysphoria is characterized by a profound sense of unease or dissatisfaction, while euthymic mood refers to a state of mood that is in the 'normal' range. Understanding these differences is crucial for accurate mood assessment.
What mood characteristics are associated with mania?
In mania, individuals typically exhibit elevated, expansive, and labile moods. These characteristics are important for diagnosing mood disorders and understanding the patient's emotional state.
What affective characteristics are commonly seen in Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)?
Individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) often experience affective instability, lability, and anxiety. Recognizing these traits is essential for effective treatment and support.
What does a blunted affect indicate in schizophrenia?
A blunted affect in schizophrenia indicates a significant reduction in emotional expression. This symptom is crucial for diagnosing the disorder and understanding the patient's emotional experience.
What is thought blocking in the context of mental health assessment?
Thought blocking refers to an incomplete train of thought where an individual suddenly stops speaking, often unable to continue their thought process. This can indicate underlying mental health issues.
How does circumstantial thinking manifest during a mental health assessment?
Circumstantial thinking is characterized by a delay in reaching the main point of a conversation due to the inclusion of unnecessary details. This can make communication less effective and may indicate certain mental health conditions.
What is the significance of flight of ideas in mental health assessments?
Flight of ideas involves racing thoughts that rapidly switch topics, creating a nearly continuous flow of accelerated speech. This symptom is often associated with mania and can affect the clarity of communication.
What are loose associations and their implications in mental health?
Loose associations occur when ideas shift from one unrelated topic to another without any obvious connections. The speaker is often unaware of the disconnect, which can be indicative of certain mental health disorders.
Define tangential thinking and its impact on communication.
Tangential thinking is the inability to get to the point of a story, where the speaker introduces multiple unrelated topics and eventually loses the original topic. This can hinder effective communication and understanding.
What is perseveration and how does it present in conversations?
Perseveration is the persistent repetition of the same word or ideas in response to different questions. This can indicate cognitive difficulties and may be observed in various mental health conditions.
Explain neologism and its relevance in mental health assessments.
Neologism refers to the creation of new, invented words that are meaningless to others but hold symbolic meaning for the speaker. This can be a sign of disordered thinking often seen in certain mental health disorders.
What are the key components that should be included in a mental health assessment?
How do delusions manifest in different mental health disorders?
What are the different types of hallucinations that should be assessed?
What is derealization and how does it manifest?
Derealization is a dissociative symptom where an individual feels detached from their surroundings, as if they are observing the environment rather than experiencing it directly.
What is depersonalization and what does it feel like?
Depersonalization is a feeling where one's own reality is temporarily lost, often described as feeling like one is in a dream state, detached from oneself.
Why is it important to assess for hallucinations and dissociative symptoms?
These symptoms can indicate serious conditions such as:
Additionally, there may be medical causes for these symptoms, including encephalitis, autoimmune diseases, or tumors.
What are the key components to assess in a patient's orientation during an interview?
The key components to assess are:
Why is assessing a patient's orientation important?
Assessing a patient's orientation is important because:
What are the components of cognition assessment?
The components of cognition assessment include:
Why is cognition assessment important in mental health?
Cognition assessment is important because it helps identify various mental health conditions:
What does the term 'insight' refer to in a mental health context?
Insight refers to the understanding of the actual cause or nature of a situation, particularly the patient's awareness of their symptoms, illness, or limitations.
What are the different levels of patient insight regarding their illness?
The levels of patient insight include:
How is judgment defined in the context of mental health?
Judgment refers to the current ability to assess a situation and act appropriately, including how a patient solves problems or makes decisions.
What are the classifications of judgment impairment in patients?
Judgment impairment can be classified as:
What is the importance of remaining neutral and avoiding judgement during the Mental Status Examination (MSE)?
Remaining neutral and avoiding judgement during the MSE is crucial because it helps to create a safe environment for the patient, encourages open communication, and ensures that the assessment is objective and free from bias or stigma.
What does the MSE not include, and why is this significant?
The MSE does not include the patient's history or past mental states, which is significant because it focuses solely on the patient's current mental state, allowing for an accurate assessment of their present condition without the influence of past experiences.
How should descriptions in the MSE be presented to ensure clarity?
Descriptions in the MSE should be as descriptive as possible, avoiding vague terms like 'normal' or 'WDL'. Instead, they should be qualified with 'As Evidenced By (AEB)' to provide specific observations and details about the patient's mental state.
What is the relationship between the suicide risk assessment and the MSE?
The suicide risk assessment may be conducted in tandem with the MSE, as both evaluations are essential for understanding the patient's current mental state and determining any immediate risks to their safety.
What is the definition of anxiety and anxiety-related disorders?
Anxiety is a feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease about something with an uncertain outcome. Anxiety-related disorders include various conditions characterized by excessive fear or anxiety, such as Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Panic Disorder, and Social Anxiety Disorder.
What are the pharmacological treatments for anxiety disorders?
Pharmacological treatments for anxiety disorders typically include:
These medications help manage symptoms and improve overall functioning.
What are some non-pharmacological treatments for anxiety disorders?
Non-pharmacological treatments for anxiety disorders include:
These approaches focus on coping strategies and behavioral changes to reduce anxiety symptoms.
What are the key components of nursing assessment for clients with anxiety disorders?
Key components of nursing assessment for clients with anxiety disorders include:
These components help in formulating an effective care plan.
What are some nursing interventions for clients with anxiety disorders?
Nursing interventions for clients with anxiety disorders include:
These interventions aim to support the client in managing their anxiety effectively.
What are the physical manifestations commonly associated with anxiety?
Common physical manifestations of anxiety include:
What are the different levels of anxiety and their characteristics?
The levels of anxiety and their characteristics are as follows:
| Level | Characteristics |
|---|---|
| Mild | Restlessness, increased motivation, irritability |
| Moderate | Agitation, muscle tightness |
| Severe | Inability to function, ritualistic behavior, unresponsive |
| Panic | Distorted perception, loss of rational thought, immobility |
What can elevated or persistent anxiety lead to?
Elevated or persistent anxiety can lead to:
What is anxiety characterized by?
Anxiety is characterized by feelings of discomfort, apprehension, and dread, typically related to the anticipation of danger.
What is the prevalence of anxiety disorders among adults?
Anxiety disorders are the most common psychiatric disorder, affecting up to 20% of adults.
At what median age does anxiety typically onset?
The median onset of anxiety is around 11 years old.
Which gender is more likely to experience anxiety disorders?
Women are more likely to experience anxiety disorders than men.
What types of responses are associated with anxiety?
Anxiety involves both physical and psychological responses.
What is often the source of anxiety?
The source of anxiety is often nonspecific or unknown.
What is separation anxiety?
Fear or anxiety when separated from an individual to whom one is emotionally attached.
What are specific phobias?
Irrational fear of a certain object or situation, such as zoophobia (fear of animals) or acrophobia (fear of heights).
What is agoraphobia?
Extreme fear of places where one feels vulnerable or unsafe.
What is social anxiety?
Excessive fear of social or performance situations, particularly the fear of being judged by the public.
What characterizes panic disorder?
Recurrent panic attacks that can lead to significant distress or impairment.
What is generalized anxiety disorder?
Uncontrollable, excessive worry that lasts at least 6 months.
What are the common symptoms of panic attacks?
Common symptoms of panic attacks include:
How long do panic attacks typically last?
Panic attacks last for a discrete period, but the exact duration can vary from a few minutes to longer, depending on the individual.
What is a common psychological experience associated with panic attacks?
A common psychological experience associated with panic attacks is a feeling of impending doom.
Are panic attacks classified as a disorder?
Panic attacks are not classified as a disorder but may occur with a variety of anxiety disorders, other mental health disorders, or medical conditions.
What type of anxiety disorder is characterized by avoiding situations that cause panic attacks, such as going to the mall or theater without a family member?
Agoraphobia is characterized by the avoidance of situations that may trigger panic attacks, leading individuals to avoid places where escape might be difficult or help unavailable.
What are the fundamental features of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
The fundamental features of OCD are intrusive thoughts of unrealistic obsessions and compulsive behaviors that are attempts to control these thoughts.
How is Hoarding Disorder characterized?
Hoarding Disorder is characterized by difficulty parting with possessions, which results in extreme stress and functional impairment.
What is Body Dysmorphic Disorder and its main focus?
Body Dysmorphic Disorder involves a preoccupation with perceived flaws or defects in physical appearance, leading to significant distress and impairment.
What are the characteristics of obsessions in the context of mental health?
Obsessions are characterized by:
What are the different types of compulsions and their purposes?
Compulsions can be categorized into:
What is the most likely reason for a newly admitted client diagnosed with OCD to spend one hour packing and unpacking personal belongings?
It relieves anxiety
What are the gender differences in prevalence for anxiety disorders and OCD?
Females are more affected than males for all anxiety disorders and obsessive-compulsive disorders, except for hoarding disorder, where males are more affected than females.
What are some genetic and neurobiological risk factors for anxiety disorders?
Risk factors include a family history of anxiety disorders and a history of trauma.
What are the features of Specific Phobias?
What are the symptoms and characteristics of Panic Disorder?
What are the main characteristics of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
What are the key characteristics of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
What defines Hoarding Disorder and its impact on individuals?
What are the symptoms of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
What are key nursing interventions for individuals experiencing anxiety or obsessive-compulsive disorders during assessment and crisis situations?
What are the first-line medications for treating anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders?
SSRIs are the first-line treatment for anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders. Examples include sertraline and paroxetine.
What are some effective medications besides SSRIs for anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders?
SNRIs can also be effective treatments for anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders. Examples include venlafaxine and duloxetine.
What types of antianxiety medications are available and their uses?
Antianxiety medications include:
How can mood stabilizers be used in the treatment of anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders?
Mood stabilizers can be used either as monotherapy or as an adjuvant treatment. Examples include lamotrigine and valproic acid.
What is the primary goal of Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) in relation to anxiety?
The primary goal of CBT is to decrease the anxiety response by changing cognitive distortions through cognitive reframing, which involves identifying negative thoughts, examining their causes, and developing supportive ideas to replace negative self-talk.
What are some key educational points for clients regarding anxiety management?
Key educational points include:
What is the goal of relaxation training in behavioral therapies?
The goal of relaxation training is to control pain, tension, and anxiety through different techniques.
How does modeling work in behavioral therapies?
Modeling involves demonstrating appropriate behavior in a stressful situation, with the goal for the patient to imitate that behavior.
What is the process of systematic desensitization in behavioral therapies?
Systematic desensitization involves mastering relaxation techniques and then gradually exposing the client to an anxiety-producing stimulus, using relaxation to overcome the resulting anxiety.
What is flooding in the context of behavioral therapies?
Flooding is a technique that involves exposure to a great deal of undesirable stimulus to turn off the anxiety response, and it is particularly useful for treating phobias.
What is the purpose of response prevention in behavioral therapies?
The purpose of response prevention is to prevent the client from performing compulsive behavior, with the goal of diminishing anxiety.
How does thought stopping work in behavioral therapies?
Thought stopping teaches the client to say 'stop' when negative thoughts or compulsions arise and to substitute a positive thought in its place.
What diagnosis is associated with a nursing student who continually and unrealistically worries about academic performance and their love life, is irritable, and suffers from severe insomnia?
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is characterized by excessive worry about various aspects of life, including academic performance and personal relationships, along with symptoms like irritability and insomnia.
What are the most common medications for anxiety, trauma- and stressor-related disorders?
Common medications include:
| Medication Class | Examples |
|---|---|
| SSRIs | Fluoxetine, Sertraline |
| SNRIs | Venlafaxine, Duloxetine |
| Benzodiazepines | Lorazepam, Diazepam |
| Buspirone | Buspirone |
| Beta-blockers | Propranolol |
What patient education is necessary for administering medications for anxiety and trauma-related disorders?
Key points for patient education include:
What are common side effects of medications used for anxiety and trauma-related disorders?
Common side effects include:
| Medication Class | Common Side Effects |
|---|---|
| SSRIs | Nausea, Insomnia, Sexual Dysfunction |
| SNRIs | Dizziness, Dry Mouth, Sweating |
| Benzodiazepines | Drowsiness, Confusion, Dependence |
| Buspirone | Dizziness, Nausea, Headache |
| Beta-blockers | Fatigue, Cold Extremities, Sleep Disturbances |
What are some examples of anxiolytics used to treat anxiety disorders?
Examples of anxiolytics include:
What types of medications are used to treat trauma- and stressor-related disorders?
Medications used include:
What are the major classifications of medications used to treat anxiety disorders?
What are the major classes of antidepressants used to treat trauma- and stressor-related disorders?
The major classes of antidepressants include:
SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors):
SNRIs (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors):
TCAs (Tricyclic Antidepressants):
MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors):
NaSSAs (Noradrenergic and Specific Serotonergic Antidepressants):
What are some other medications used to treat trauma- and stressor-related disorders?
Other medications include:
What is the prototype medication for benzodiazepines?
The prototype medication for benzodiazepines is alprazolam.
What is the primary purpose of benzodiazepines?
The primary purpose of benzodiazepines is to enhance inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system (CNS), providing rapid relief from anxiety following administration.
What are the therapeutic uses of benzodiazepines?
Benzodiazepines are used for:
What are important nursing administration considerations for benzodiazepines?
Important nursing administration considerations include:
What client education should be provided regarding benzodiazepines?
Client education should include:
What interactions should be avoided when taking benzodiazepines?
When taking benzodiazepines, avoid:
What are the complications associated with benzodiazepine use?
What client education should be provided regarding CNS depression from benzodiazepines?
What nursing actions should be taken in case of acute toxicity from benzodiazepines?
What are the contraindications and precautions for benzodiazepine use?
What is the primary mechanism of action for buspirone as an anxiolytic?
Buspirone binds to serotonin and dopamine receptors, although its exact antianxiety mechanism is unknown.
What are the therapeutic uses of buspirone?
Buspirone is primarily used for the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD).
What are some common side effects of buspirone?
Common side effects include dizziness, nausea, headache, lightheadedness, and agitation. It does not interfere with daily activities.
What precautions should be taken when prescribing buspirone?
Caution should be exercised when prescribing buspirone during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and it should be used cautiously in patients with renal or liver disease. It is contraindicated for concurrent use with MAOIs.
How should buspirone be administered for optimal effectiveness?
Buspirone should be administered at the same time daily, may be taken with meals, and it typically takes 4 or more weeks to achieve full effects.
What interactions should be considered when prescribing buspirone?
Concurrent use of erythromycin, ketoconazole, St. John's wort, and grapefruit juice can increase the effects of buspirone and are contraindicated.
What is the primary purpose of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)?
SSRIs selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake, increasing serotonin at the neuronal junction.
What are some therapeutic uses of SSRIs?
SSRIs are first-line treatment for:
What nursing administration guidelines should be followed when administering SSRIs?
What are the contraindications and precautions for using paroxetine?
What are the early adverse effects of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)?
Early adverse effects include nausea, diaphoresis, tremor, fatigue, and drowsiness. Clients should be educated to report these effects, take the medication as prescribed, and be cautious with driving as these effects should subside over time.
What are the later adverse effects of SSRIs and how can they be managed?
Later adverse effects (after 5+ weeks) include sexual dysfunction (impotence, delayed/absent orgasm/ejaculation), weight gain, and headache. Management options include dose change, medication holiday, dose reduction, or addition of bupropion. Clients should be educated to report any sexual dysfunction.
What should clients monitor regarding weight changes when taking SSRIs?
Clients should monitor their weight as they may experience weight loss early in therapy and weight gain with long-term treatment. It is important to exercise regularly and follow a well-balanced diet.
What is the risk of hyponatremia in older adults taking SSRIs?
Hyponatremia is more likely in older adults taking diuretics. It is important to obtain a baseline sodium level and monitor it periodically to prevent complications.
What are the signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding associated with SSRIs?
SSRIs can increase the risk of GI bleeding, especially in individuals taking NSAIDs or other antiplatelet medications. Clients should be educated to report any signs or symptoms of GI bleeding, such as stomach pain, vomiting blood, or black stools.
What is bruxism and how can it be managed in clients taking SSRIs?
Bruxism is the grinding and clenching of teeth, usually during sleep. Clients should report bruxism, which may be treated with a change in medication/class, addition of buspirone, or wearing a mouth guard.
What is withdrawal syndrome related to SSRIs and how should it be managed?
Withdrawal syndrome can include nausea, sensory disturbance, anxiety, tremor, and malaise. Clients should take the medication as prescribed, avoid abrupt discontinuation, and taper the medication slowly to manage withdrawal symptoms.
What is the primary purpose of Serotonin Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)?
SNRIs inhibit the uptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, with minimal inhibition of dopamine. Therapeutic effects may take up to 4+ weeks to manifest.
What are the nursing administration guidelines for venlafaxine, a prototype SNRI?
What are the therapeutic uses of SNRIs?
SNRIs are typically used after 1-2 failed attempts at SSRIs and are indicated for:
What are the contraindications and precautions for using SNRIs?
What are some early adverse effects of Serotonin Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)?
Early adverse effects include:
Client education includes reporting these effects, taking medication as prescribed, and being cautious with driving as these effects should subside.
What are the later adverse effects associated with SNRIs and how can they be managed?
Later adverse effects (after 5+ weeks) include:
Management strategies include:
What complications should be monitored when a patient is on SNRIs?
Complications to monitor include:
What is serotonin syndrome and what are its symptoms?
Serotonin syndrome can begin 2-72 hours after treatment initiation and can be lethal. Symptoms include:
What client education should be provided regarding serotonin syndrome?
Clients should be educated to observe for manifestations of serotonin syndrome. If any symptoms occur, they should:
What are the interactions to be aware of when prescribing SSRIs and SNRIs?
Key interactions include:
What factors indicate the efficacy of medication in nursing evaluation?
Efficacy can be evidenced by the following:
What are the definitions of trauma, stress, and related disorders?
Trauma refers to an emotional response to a distressing event, which can lead to lasting psychological effects. Stress is the body's reaction to a challenge or demand, which can be acute or chronic. Related disorders include conditions such as PTSD (Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder), acute stress disorder, and adjustment disorders, which arise from experiencing or witnessing traumatic events.
What are the pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatments for trauma and stress-related disorders?
Pharmacological treatments may include:
Non-pharmacological treatments may include:
What are the key components of nursing assessment and interventions for clients with trauma and stress-related disorders?
Key components of nursing assessment include:
Interventions may include:
What are the potential outcomes of a crisis depending on individual support?
A crisis can lead to either growth or deterioration depending on the individual's support system.
What is the primary manifestation of a crisis?
The primary manifestation of a crisis is anxiety.
What are some common individual presentations during a crisis?
Common presentations during a crisis include:
What is the nurse's role during a crisis situation?
The nurse's role is to:
What are the key differences between Acute Stress Disorder (ASD), Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), and Adjustment Disorder?
| Disorder | Duration of Symptoms | Severity of Symptoms |
|---|---|---|
| Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) | Symptoms last at least 3 days but not more than one month following the event | Exposure to traumatic events causes anxiety, detachment, and other manifestations about the event |
| Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) | Symptoms last longer than one month following the event | Exposure to traumatic events causes anxiety, detachment, and other manifestations about the event; manifestations can last for years |
| Adjustment Disorder | Symptoms start within 3 months of the stressor and last no longer than 6 months | A stressor triggers a reaction causing changes in mood and/or dysfunction in performing usual activities; effects are less severe than with ASD or PTSD |
What are the key characteristics of Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder?
What defines Dissociative Amnesia?
What are the main features of Dissociative Identity Disorder?
What are the key actions to take when monitoring for child physical and sexual abuse?
Which occupations are recognized to have a high incidence of PTSD?
Support and treatment should be identified for these individuals to prevent sequelae from severe trauma.
What strategies can be implemented for PTSD prevention during or after a traumatic incident?
What are some risk factors for developing PTSD?
Risk factors for PTSD include:
What are some intrusive findings associated with ASD and PTSD?
What mood and cognitive alterations are commonly seen in individuals with ASD and PTSD?
What behavioral manifestations are indicative of ASD and PTSD?
What are the symptoms of depersonalization?
What are the symptoms of derealization?
What are the expected findings for adjustment disorder?
What characterizes depersonalization/derealization disorder?
What is a symptom of dissociative amnesia?
What are the key complications associated with tricyclic antidepressants?
Key complications include:
What should be monitored in patients taking tricyclic antidepressants for orthostatic hypotension?
Monitor the following for orthostatic hypotension:
What client education should be provided to manage anticholinergic effects of tricyclic antidepressants?
Client education for managing anticholinergic effects includes:
What are the signs of toxicity associated with tricyclic antidepressants?
Signs of toxicity include:
It is important to give less than a one-week supply, obtain a baseline EKG, and monitor vital signs and manifestations of toxicity closely.
What is the primary purpose of MAOIs like phenelzine?
MAOIs inhibit cerebral monoamine oxidase (MAO), leading to an increase in serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine levels, which helps improve depression.
What are the therapeutic uses of MAOIs?
MAOIs are used for treating:
What are the contraindications for using MAOIs?
MAOIs have several contraindications, including:
What are the complications associated with MAOIs?
What interactions should be monitored when using MAOIs?
What types of foods should be avoided when taking MAOIs?
Patients on MAOIs should avoid the following tyramine-rich foods:
Additionally, patients should avoid any medications—both OTC and prescription—without approval from their provider.
What is the primary mechanism of action of NDRI-Bupropion?
NDRI-Bupropion acts by inhibiting dopamine and norepinephrine uptake.
What types of therapy are included in somatic therapy for dissociative disorders?
Somatic therapy may include techniques such as hypnotherapy to address and treat dissociative disorders by focusing on the connection between the mind and body.
What are some relaxation techniques and anxiety-reducing strategies for individuals with PTSD?
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for a 25-year-old woman experiencing intense anxiety, nightmares, and flashbacks related to a traumatic car accident for the past three weeks?
The most appropriate diagnosis is A) Acute Stress Disorder (ASD), as the symptoms have persisted for less than a month following the traumatic event.
What is a common risk factor for developing Acute Stress Disorder (ASD), Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), Adjustment Disorder, and Dissociative Disorders?
A common risk factor is A) Exposure to a traumatic event. This factor is significant across these disorders.
What is the most important aspect for a nurse to assess in a patient with Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) to understand its impact on daily functioning?
The most important aspect to assess is the frequency and intensity of flashbacks and nightmares (Option A). These symptoms significantly affect the patient's daily life and functioning.
What principle is essential for providing trauma-informed nursing care to patients who have experienced trauma?
The essential principle is to ensure that the care environment is safe, predictable, and respectful (Option C). This approach helps in building trust and promoting healing.
What is a common indication for prescribing selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) in patients with Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
B) To decrease symptoms of anxiety and depression
What is the difference between prazosin and propranolol in the treatment of PTSD-related symptoms?
A) Prazosin is primarily used to treat nightmares and sleep disturbances, while propranolol is used to manage hyperarousal and anxiety symptoms.
Which of the following best describes the primary goal of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) for patients with anxiety disorders?
B) To help patients identify and change maladaptive thought patterns and behaviors
What is the primary purpose of therapy in the treatment of trauma- and stressor-related disorders, such as PTSD, ASD, and dissociative disorders?
To help individuals process traumatic experiences and develop effective coping strategies
What are the epidemiological statistics related to suicide?
Epidemiological statistics on suicide typically include data on prevalence rates, demographic factors (such as age, gender, and ethnicity), and trends over time. For example, suicide rates may vary significantly across different age groups, with higher rates often observed in middle-aged and older adults. Additionally, certain populations, such as LGBTQ+ individuals, may experience higher risk factors for suicide. Understanding these statistics helps in identifying at-risk groups and tailoring prevention strategies accordingly.
What are the predisposing factors implicated in the etiology of suicide?
Predisposing factors for suicide can include:
These factors can interact in complex ways, increasing the overall risk of suicidal behavior.
How can the nursing process be applied to individuals experiencing suicidality?
The nursing process for individuals experiencing suicidality involves the following steps:
Assessment: Evaluate the individual's mental state, risk factors, and protective factors. Use standardized tools to assess suicidal ideation and intent.
Diagnosis: Identify nursing diagnoses related to suicidality, such as risk for self-directed violence or ineffective coping.
Planning: Develop a safety plan that includes crisis intervention strategies, support systems, and coping mechanisms.
Implementation: Provide therapeutic interventions, including counseling, medication management, and crisis intervention. Ensure a safe environment.
Evaluation: Continuously assess the individual's progress and adjust the care plan as needed based on their response to interventions.
What is a more appropriate term to use instead of 'committed suicide'?
Use 'died by suicide' or 'lost their life to suicide' to avoid implying that suicide is a sin or crime, which reinforces stigma.
Why should we avoid the term 'successful suicide'?
The term 'successful suicide' is inappropriate as it frames a tragic outcome as an achievement; instead, use 'died by suicide' or 'survived a suicide attempt'.
How should we refer to someone who is experiencing suicidal thoughts?
Instead of saying 'NAME is suicidal', say 'NAME is facing suicide' or 'has experienced suicidal thoughts' to avoid defining them by their experience.
What is the definition of suicide?
Suicide is defined as death caused by self-directed injurious behavior with intent to die as a result of the behavior.
How is a suicide attempt defined?
A suicide attempt is a non-fatal, self-directed, potentially injurious behavior with intent to die as a result of the behavior. It may not result in injury.
What does suicidal ideation refer to?
Suicidal ideation refers to thinking about, considering, or planning suicide.
What is the second-leading cause of death among Americans aged 10 to 44?
Suicide is the second-leading cause of death among Americans aged 10 to 44 years.
How many suicides occurred among adults in 2022?
There were 49,476 suicides among adults in 2022.
What is the ratio of emergency department visits related to suicide for every suicide death?
For every suicide death, there are about 8 emergency department visits related to suicide.
What is the leading cause of death for ages 45 to 64 years?
Suicide is the eighth-leading cause of death for ages 45 to 64 years.
What is the estimated number of people who seriously considered suicide in the last year for every suicide death?
For every suicide death, there are about 265 people who seriously considered suicide in the last year.
What are some examples of protective factors that contribute to mental health resilience?
How does marital status influence the risk of suicide?
Single persons have a suicide rate that is twice that of married persons. Changes in marital status, such as break-ups, divorce, or widowhood, also increase the risk for suicidal behavior.
What is the relationship between sex and suicide rates?
Women attempt suicide more often, but men die by suicide more frequently. Men typically choose more lethal methods than women. Additionally, LGBTQ individuals are at a higher risk compared to the heterosexual cisgender population.
How does age affect the risk of suicide?
The risk of suicide increases with age, especially among men. Men aged 45 to 64 years are at the highest risk across all age and gender groups, while both adolescents and the elderly are considered high-risk groups.
What role does religion play in suicide risk?
Individuals without close affiliations that impose restrictions on suicide may be at a greater risk for suicidal behavior.
What socioeconomic factors are associated with higher suicide rates?
Higher suicide rates are associated with individuals experiencing financial strain, unemployment, or those living in rural areas.
Which ethnic groups are at the highest risk for suicide?
The highest risk for suicide is among Whites, followed by Native Americans. Black people, Asian people, and Pacific Islanders are at much lower risk.
What psychiatric illnesses are most commonly associated with an increased risk of suicide?
Mood disorders and substance use disorders are the most common psychiatric illnesses that precede suicide.
How does hospitalization for psychiatric illness affect suicide risk?
Individuals who have been hospitalized for a psychiatric illness have a higher risk of suicide, especially in the first month following hospitalization.
What should be monitored after starting antidepressant medication?
After starting antidepressant medication, it is important to continue monitoring the individual for any signs of increased suicide risk.
What are some risk factors associated with mental health issues?
What is a significant risk factor for suicide attempts?
Having attempted suicide previously increases the risk of a subsequent attempt. About half of those who ultimately die by suicide have a history of a previous attempt.
How does loss affect the risk of suicide?
Loss of a loved one through death or separation is a significant risk factor for suicide.
What role does bullying play in mental health?
Bullying and cyberbullying are recognized as risk factors for mental health issues, including increased risk of suicide.
What substances are associated with increased suicide risk?
Substance use, particularly alcohol and barbiturate use, as well as withdrawal from these substances, are associated with increased suicide risk.
What are some occupations that are considered high risk for suicide due to stress and isolation?
Occupations considered high risk for suicide include:
What is a significant risk factor for suicide among military personnel?
Firearms account for over 60% of all suicides among military members, highlighting the importance of addressing access to lethal means as a risk factor.
How does unemployment relate to mental health risk factors?
Unemployment is a significant risk factor for mental health issues, including increased risk of suicide, due to factors such as financial stress and loss of social identity.
What is a critical barrier to mental health care that can increase suicide risk?
Lack of access to adequate mental health care is a critical barrier that can increase the risk of suicide and other mental health issues.
What are some immediate warning signs that someone may be considering suicide?
What are some warning signs that may indicate a risk of suicide?
What are some potentiating risk factors for suicide?
What is the priority when dealing with clients at risk of suicide?
Safety is always the priority.
How should a nurse approach conversations about suicide with clients?
Be direct and talk openly and matter-of-factly about suicide.
What should a nurse encourage clients to do when discussing their feelings about suicide?
Listen actively and encourage expression of feelings, including anger.
What is an important aspect to discuss with clients in crisis situations?
Discuss the current crisis situation and feelings associated with control.
What should a nurse do to help clients feel empowered during a crisis?
Help identify areas they have control over to foster feelings of self-worth and empowerment.
What are some examples of harmful objects that should be monitored for in clients at risk of suicide?
Examples include shoelaces, belts, spiral-bound notebooks, lighters, matches, paper clips, knitting needles, scissors, and hooks.
What type of surveillance is recommended for clients at risk of suicide?
One-to-one line-of-sight surveillance or at least monitored every 15 minutes.
How can a nurse empathize with a client considering suicide?
Acknowledge the emotional pain leading to suicidal thoughts while exploring alternative ways to decrease that pain.
What are the common disorders that precede suicide?
Mood disorders (depressive and bipolar disorders) are the most common disorders that precede suicide. Additionally, Substance Use Disorders (SUD) and chronic and terminal illnesses also present a very high risk.
What key factors should nurses identify and distinguish in suicide assessment?
Nurses need to identify and distinguish the following key factors in suicide assessment:
What types of self-injury should be considered in suicide assessments?
In suicide assessments, nurses should consider:
What does the acronym PATH WARM stand for in the context of suicide risk assessment?
PATH WARM stands for:
What are the differences between overt and covert comments regarding suicidal thoughts?
Overt comments are obvious expressions of distress, such as 'I can't take it anymore. I wish I was dead.' Covert comments are more concealed and may imply distress without directly stating it, such as 'Things are looking pretty grim for me.'
Why is it important to ask a person if they are thinking about killing themselves?
It is essential to ask the question directly because asking will not give a person the idea to kill themselves. It opens a dialogue for assessment and support.
What standardized tool can be used to assess suicidal ideation and what key aspects should be evaluated?
The CSSR-S (Columbia-Suicide Severity Rating Scale) can be used to assess suicidal ideation. Key aspects to evaluate include:
What is the purpose of normalizing in the CAMS model when discussing suicidal ideation?
Normalizing communicates to the patient that they are not alone in experiencing suicidal thoughts, helping to reduce stigma and encourage open dialogue. For example, saying, 'Sometimes when people are in a lot of emotional pain, they have thoughts of killing themselves. Have you had any thoughts like that?' can facilitate this discussion.
How does asking about behavioral events differ from asking for opinions in the context of suicidal ideation?
Asking about behavioral events focuses on concrete actions taken by the patient, which can provide clearer insights into their experiences. For instance, questions like 'What did you do when you had those thoughts?' or 'How many pills did you take?' elicit specific information rather than subjective opinions.
What is the strategy of gentle assumptions in the CAMS model, and how does it facilitate communication?
Gentle assumptions encourage patients to share more by implying that there is additional information to discuss. For example, asking 'What other times have you attempted suicide?' invites the patient to elaborate on their experiences without feeling pressured.
How does the denial of the specific strategy work in the context of suicidal ideation?
The denial of the specific strategy helps to elicit more in-depth responses from patients who generally deny suicidal thoughts. By asking questions like 'Have you ever had thoughts of overdosing?' or 'Have you ever had thoughts about shooting yourself?', it prompts the patient to reflect on specific instances they may not initially acknowledge.
What is the significance of chronologically exploring suicidal events in the CAMS model?
Chronologically exploring suicidal events allows the nurse to understand the patient's immediate suicidal intent within the context of their behavior over time. This includes discussing the event that led to hospitalization, recent attempts, and current ideation, which helps in assessing risk and planning care.
What are the first two questions to ask in the Columbia-Suicide Severity Rating Scale (C-SSRS)?
What should be done if the answer to question 2 is 'Yes' in the C-SSRS?
If the answer to question 2 is 'Yes', ask questions 3, 4, 5, and 6. If the answer is 'No', go directly to question 6.
What is the purpose of question 6 in the C-SSRS?
Question 6 asks if the individual has ever done anything, started to do anything, or prepared to do anything to end their life, which helps assess the severity of suicidal ideation and intent.
What are the risk levels indicated in the C-SSRS?
The risk levels indicated are:
What are the nursing interventions for a patient at risk for suicide related to feelings of hopelessness and desperation?
What interventions can be implemented for a patient experiencing hopelessness and powerlessness due to an absence of support systems?
What precautions should be taken for a person experiencing thoughts of suicide?
Do not leave the person alone; plan for 1:1 supervision if indicated.
Establish rapport and promote a trusting relationship by accepting their feelings in a non-judgmental manner.
Safety check the room for potential hazards:
Schedule frequent room checks for safety, varying the frequency and duration.
Document location, mood, statements, and behavior according to unit policy.
Use plastic eating utensils to minimize risk.
Keep the door to the room open at all times.
Check for cheeking (hiding medication in the mouth).
Restrict visitors as needed.
What is the typical time frame for SSRIs to reach their full therapeutic effect?
SSRIs may take 4-6 weeks for full therapeutic effect.
What should be monitored when a patient is on SSRIs?
Monitor for indications of increased depression and suicidal intent.
What should be avoided when taking anxiolytics?
Avoid other CNS depressants, such as alcohol (ETOH).
What is important to do before discontinuing a benzodiazepine?
Seek medical advice before discontinuing a benzodiazepine.
What is a key compliance requirement for patients on mood stabilizers?
Patients must comply with lab appointments.
What dietary consideration should be taken into account when using antipsychotics?
Maintain a healthy diet while on antipsychotics.
What symptoms should be reported when taking antipsychotics?
Report symptoms such as agitation, dizziness, sedation, and sleep disruptions.
What is the primary goal of Milieu Therapy?
The primary goal of Milieu Therapy is to create a therapeutic, supportive, and safe environment that improves psychological health and decreases stress.
What are the key components of Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)?
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) focuses on:
It is considered the gold standard treatment for mood and anxiety disorders.
What is the role of therapeutic communication in mental health treatment?
Therapeutic communication involves:
This approach enhances the therapeutic relationship and supports the client's recovery process.
What is the first intervention to ensure support for individuals at discharge or in outpatient settings?
Ensure access to support systems and tie to a system of care, engaging family and friends as needed.
What should be included in a detailed safety plan for patients experiencing suicidal thoughts?
The safety plan should include what the patient will do if there is an increase in suicidal thoughts.
How can family or friends assist in ensuring the safety of a patient at home?
Family or friends can help by removing weapons and stockpiled drugs from the home.
What is the recommendation for scheduling appointments for patients in a suicidal crisis?
Schedule frequent appointments until the immediate suicidal crisis has subsided.
What is an important aspect of establishing a therapeutic relationship with a patient?
Establish rapport and promote a trusting relationship by accepting the patient's feelings in a non-judgmental manner.
What factors indicate the need for reassessment of a safety plan for a patient at risk of suicide?
Factors indicating the need for reassessment include:
What are the essential components of a safety plan for clients at risk of suicide?
What should you do if someone hints at suicide?
Take any hint of suicide seriously and do not keep secrets.
How can you support someone who may be suicidal?
Be a good listener, express feelings of personal worth, and acknowledge their feelings.
What actions should be taken regarding access to means of self-harm?
Restrict access to firearms or other means of self-harm.
What is an important step to take when someone is feeling suicidal?
Do not leave the person alone and provide a feeling of hopefulness.
What should you avoid doing when someone is expressing suicidal thoughts?
Do not judge, show anger, or provoke guilt in the person.
What is a crucial resource to know about when dealing with someone who is suicidal?
Know about suicide intervention resources and seek professional help.
What should you do regarding children in a home where someone is suicidal?
Remove children from the home to ensure their safety.
How can you show support to someone who is feeling suicidal?
Show love and encouragement to the person.
What are the key components of a safety plan for managing suicidal thoughts and urges?
A safety plan for managing suicidal thoughts and urges typically includes the following components:
Warning Signs: Identifying personal triggers and signs that indicate a crisis is approaching.
Coping Strategies: Listing effective coping strategies that the patient can use to manage distress.
Support Contacts: Identifying trusted individuals to contact during a crisis.
Professional Resources: Including contact information for mental health professionals or crisis hotlines.
Safe Environment: Ensuring the patient has a safe space and removing access to means of self-harm.
How can a patient develop a positive self-concept?
A patient can develop a positive self-concept through the following strategies:
Self-Reflection: Engaging in self-reflection to understand personal strengths and weaknesses.
Positive Affirmations: Using positive affirmations to challenge negative self-talk.
Setting Achievable Goals: Setting and achieving small, realistic goals to build confidence.
Seeking Feedback: Asking for constructive feedback from trusted friends or professionals.
Engaging in Activities: Participating in activities that promote a sense of accomplishment and joy.
What are effective coping strategies for maintaining personal safety?
Effective coping strategies for maintaining personal safety include:
Mindfulness and Relaxation Techniques: Practicing mindfulness, meditation, or deep breathing exercises to reduce anxiety.
Physical Activity: Engaging in regular physical exercise to improve mood and reduce stress.
Creative Outlets: Utilizing creative activities such as art, music, or writing to express emotions.
Social Support: Building a support network of friends, family, or support groups to share experiences and feelings.
Routine Establishment: Creating a daily routine to provide structure and predictability.
What is the importance of feeling accepted by others in mental health?
Feeling accepted by others is crucial for mental health because it:
Enhances Self-Esteem: Acceptance from others boosts self-esteem and self-worth.
Reduces Isolation: It helps reduce feelings of loneliness and isolation, which can exacerbate mental health issues.
Promotes Resilience: A sense of belonging fosters resilience and the ability to cope with challenges.
Encourages Open Communication: Acceptance encourages individuals to share their thoughts and feelings, leading to better emotional support.
Facilitates Healthy Relationships: It lays the foundation for developing and maintaining healthy interpersonal relationships.
What are some interventions for family and friends of suicide victims?
What are the risk factors for mental health issues?
Risk factors for mental health issues can include:
What are protective factors in mental health?
Protective factors that can enhance mental health include:
What are suicidal ideations and their components?
Suicidal ideations refer to thoughts about wanting to end one's life. Key components include:
What are common warning signs of suicidal ideation?
Common warning signs of suicidal ideation include:
What are priority nursing interventions for a patient with suicidal ideation?
Priority nursing interventions include:
Identify 3 therapeutic communication strategies.
Three therapeutic communication strategies include:
Which is a misconception about suicide?
C. Most individuals commit suicide by taking an overdose of drugs.
What is the priority nursing intervention when a nurse discovers a client's suicide note detailing the time, place, and means to commit suicide?
C. Placing this client on one-to-one suicide precautions because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide.
What is the nurse's priority intervention for an actively suicidal client on the psychiatric unit?
C. Place client on suicide precautions with one-to-one observation.
What should be the nurse's priority action for a client with a history of suicide attempts who shows sudden mood improvement after taking fluoxetine?
C. Increase frequency of client observation.
What are the common feelings expressed by individuals suffering from depression?
Individuals suffering from depression commonly express feelings of sadness, despair, and pessimism.
What are some risk factors for suicide in individuals with depression?
Risk factors for suicide in individuals with depression include:
How does transient depression differ from pathological depression?
Transient depression consists of normal, healthy responses to everyday life disappointments, while pathological depression occurs when adaptation to these disappointments is ineffective.
What was the yearly prevalence of depression in 2021?
In 2021, the yearly prevalence of depression was 8.3%, with a higher prevalence of 18.6% among individuals aged 18-25.
What trend has been observed regarding the prevalence of depression in US teens?
The prevalence of depression is increasing among US teens.
What is the lifetime prevalence of depression?
The lifetime prevalence of depression is over 20%.
What is the prevalence of anxiety disorders in individuals with depressive disorders?
Anxiety disorders are comorbid in 70% of those with depressive disorders, leading to a poorer prognosis with increased risk for suicide and disability.
How do substance use disorders relate to depressive disorders?
Substance use disorders often occur as individuals attempt to relieve manifestations of depression or engage in self-treatment.
What are the key symptoms required for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?
A diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) requires at least 5 of the following symptoms lasting for a minimum of 2 weeks:
What are the specifiers for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?
Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) can be classified with the following specifiers:
| Specifier | Description |
|---|---|
| Psychotic features | Presence of hallucinations or delusions. |
| Peripartum onset | A depressive episode that begins during pregnancy or within 4 weeks of childbirth (postpartum depression), which can include delusions that may put the newborn at risk. |
What are the characteristics of Major Depressive Disorder with anxious distress according to the DSM-5?
With anxious distress: Keyed up, tense, unusually restless, and fear that the individual may lose control of themselves.
What features define Major Depressive Disorder with mixed features in the DSM-5?
With mixed features: Elevated/expansive mood, inflated self-esteem, grandiosity, more talkative, flight of ideas, increase in energy, increase in risky behavior, and decreased need for sleep.
What are the symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder with melancholic features as per the DSM-5?
With melancholic features: Profound despondency and lack of reactivity to pleasurable stimuli.
What distinguishes Major Depressive Disorder with atypical features in the DSM-5?
With atypical features: Mood reactivity, significant weight gain, leaden paralysis, and severe social and occupational impairment.
What is the clinical presentation of Major Depressive Disorder with catatonia according to the DSM-5?
With catatonia: Marked psychomotor disturbance that may involve decreased motor activity, decreased engagement, or excessive and peculiar motor activity. The clinical presentation may be puzzling.
How is Major Depressive Disorder with a seasonal pattern defined in the DSM-5?
With seasonal pattern: Regular temporal relationship between the onset of major depressive episode and full remission at a characteristic time of the year.
What is Persistent Depressive Disorder and how does it differ from Major Depressive Disorder?
Persistent Depressive Disorder, previously known as dysthymic disorder, is a milder form of depression that lasts at least 2 years (1 year for children) and contains at least 3 clinical features of depression. It can develop into Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) if symptoms worsen.
What are the emotional and physical manifestations of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD)?
Emotional manifestations of PMDD include:
Physical manifestations include:
PMDD is associated with the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and affects 2-6% of menstruating individuals.
What is Substance-Induced Depressive Disorder?
Substance-Induced Depressive Disorder is characterized by depression that is associated with drug or alcohol use or withdrawal. This type of depression is directly linked to substance use and may resolve with cessation of the substance.
What are the goals of nursing care during the acute phase of depression treatment?
The goals during the acute phase include:
What is the focus of the continuation phase in depression treatment?
The focus of the continuation phase includes:
What is the primary goal of the maintenance phase in depression treatment?
The primary goal of the maintenance phase is the prevention of future depressive episodes. This phase can last for years, ensuring ongoing support and management of the condition.
What is the most significant risk factor for depression?
Family history and previous personal history of depression is the most significant risk factor.
How does the risk of depression differ between genders?
Women are 2 times more likely than men to experience depression.
What age group is particularly at risk for depression and why?
Individuals over the age of 65 are at risk for depression, which can be harder to recognize and may go untreated, often needing differentiation from early dementia.
What role do neurotransmitter deficiencies play in depression?
Imbalances of neurotransmitters such as serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine, acetylcholine, GABA, and possibly glutamate can contribute to the development of depression.
What are some other risk factors for depression?
Other risk factors include:
What are common psychological symptoms observed in patients with depression?
Common psychological symptoms include:
What vegetative findings are associated with Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?
Vegetative findings associated with MDD include:
What physical assessment findings might indicate depression in a patient?
Physical assessment findings that may indicate depression include:
What somatic symptoms are commonly reported by individuals with depression?
Common somatic symptoms reported include:
What is the purpose of the Hamilton Depression Scale?
The Hamilton Depression Scale is a depression assessment scale that evaluates the severity of symptoms experienced in the past week.
How many items are included in the Beck Depression Inventory and what does it measure?
The Beck Depression Inventory consists of 21 items and is a self-report tool that measures characteristic attitudes and symptoms of depression.
What type of questions does the Geriatric Depression Scale use and what does it assess?
The Geriatric Depression Scale uses 30 yes/no questions to assess mood over the past week.
What is the focus of the Zung Self-Rating Depression Scale?
The Zung Self-Rating Depression Scale focuses on assessing the level of depression in individuals diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder (MDD).
What is the function of the Patient Health Questionnaire-9?
The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 is used to help in screening and monitoring depression.
What are the key components of assessing suicide risk in nursing care?
How can nurses support self-care in patients?
What strategies can be used to maintain a safe environment for patients?
What counseling and community resources can be provided to patients?
What communication techniques should nurses use with patients who are unwilling or unable to communicate?
What are the key client teaching points for all antidepressants?
What is the primary mechanism of action of SSRIs?
SSRIs selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake, which increases serotonin levels at the neuronal junction.
What are the first-line therapeutic uses of SSRIs?
SSRIs are primarily used as first-line treatment for depressive disorders.
What are some nursing administration guidelines for SSRIs?
What are the contraindications for using SSRIs?
What are the early adverse effects of SSRIs and what client education should be provided?
Early adverse effects include nausea, diaphoresis, tremor, fatigue, and drowsiness. Client education should include:
What are the later adverse effects of SSRIs and how can they be managed?
Later adverse effects (after 5+ weeks) include sexual dysfunction (impotence, delayed/absent orgasm/ejaculation), weight gain, and headache. Management strategies include:
What should clients monitor regarding weight changes when taking SSRIs?
Clients should monitor their weight as they may experience:
What is the risk of hyponatremia in older adults taking SSRIs and what should be done?
Hyponatremia is more likely in older adults taking diuretics. It is important to:
What complications are associated with SSRIs regarding gastrointestinal bleeding?
SSRIs can increase the risk of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding, especially in individuals taking NSAIDs or other antiplatelet medications. Client education should include:
What is bruxism and how can it be managed in clients taking SSRIs?
Bruxism is the grinding and clenching of teeth, usually during sleep. Management strategies include:
What is withdrawal syndrome related to SSRIs and how should it be managed?
Withdrawal syndrome can include symptoms such as nausea, sensory disturbance, anxiety, tremor, and malaise. Management includes:
What is the prototype medication for SNRIs and name two other examples?
The prototype medication for SNRIs is venlafaxine. Two other examples are duloxetine and desvenlafaxine.
What is the primary purpose of SNRIs in treatment?
SNRIs inhibit the uptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, with minimal inhibition of dopamine. Therapeutic effects may take up to 4+ weeks to manifest.
What are some nursing administration guidelines for SNRIs?
What are the therapeutic uses of SNRIs?
SNRIs are usually used after 1-2 failed attempts at SSRIs and are indicated for:
What are the contraindications and precautions for using SNRIs?
What are the early adverse effects of SNRIs and how should clients manage them?
Early adverse effects include:
Client education:
What are the later adverse effects of SNRIs and how can they be managed?
Later adverse effects (after 5+ weeks) include:
Client education:
What complications should clients monitor for when taking SNRIs?
Clients should monitor for the following complications:
Hypertension:
Withdrawal syndrome:
Hyponatremia:
What is serotonin syndrome and what are its symptoms?
Serotonin syndrome can begin 2-72 hours after treatment initiation and can be lethal. Symptoms include:
What client education should be provided regarding serotonin syndrome?
Clients should be educated to observe for manifestations of serotonin syndrome. If any symptoms occur, they should:
What are the interactions to be aware of when using SSRIs and SNRIs?
Key interactions include:
What is the primary mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline?
Tricyclic antidepressants block the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the synaptic space.
What are some therapeutic uses of tricyclic antidepressants?
Tricyclic antidepressants are used for:
What are the contraindications for using tricyclic antidepressants?
Tricyclic antidepressants are contraindicated in:
Use cautiously in patients with:
What interactions should be considered when prescribing tricyclic antidepressants?
Key interactions include:
What are the therapeutic uses of NDRI-Bupropion?
NDRI-Bupropion is used for:
What are the contraindications for using NDRI-Bupropion?
Contraindications for NDRI-Bupropion include:
What complications can arise from the use of NDRI-Bupropion?
Complications of NDRI-Bupropion may include:
What interactions should be considered when prescribing NDRI-Bupropion?
Important interactions with NDRI-Bupropion include:
What are the therapeutic effects and side effects of Mirtazapine?
What is the primary use of Trazodone and what are its notable side effects?
How does Vilazodone function and what are its risks?
What are the characteristics of bipolar disorders?
Bipolar disorders are mood disorders characterized by:
What are the key characteristics of Bipolar I disorder?
Bipolar I disorder is characterized by at least one episode of mania, which is usually alternating with major depression.
How does Bipolar II disorder differ from Bipolar I disorder?
Bipolar II disorder is defined by:
What is cyclothymia and how is it characterized?
Cyclothymia is characterized by:
What are the differences in mood episodes between Bipolar I and Bipolar II disorders?
| Disorder | Manic Episodes | Hypomanic Episodes | Major Depressive Episodes |
|---|---|---|---|
| Bipolar I | At least 1 | Yes | Yes |
| Bipolar II | None | At least 1 | At least 1 |
What are the key characteristics of mania in bipolar disorders?
How does hypomania differ from mania in bipolar disorders?
What is rapid cycling in the context of bipolar disorders?
What are the goals of care during the acute phase of mental illness?
The goals during the acute phase include:
What is the primary goal during the continuation phase of mental illness treatment?
The primary goal during the continuation phase is relapse prevention through:
What is the focus of treatment in the maintenance phase of mental illness?
The focus of treatment in the maintenance phase is the prevention of future manic episodes and severe depressive episodes. Treatment generally continues throughout life.
What are some common comorbidities associated with bipolar disorder?
Common comorbidities include:
What are the risk factors for developing bipolar disorder?
Risk factors include:
What can trigger an episode of mania in individuals with bipolar disorder?
Triggers for an episode of mania can include:
What is the purpose of the Mood Disorders Questionnaire?
The Mood Disorders Questionnaire is a standardized screening tool that assesses mood progression on a continuum from:
What are the additional findings of mania?
What are the additional findings of depression?
What symptoms are associated with a manic episode?
What symptoms are associated with a depressive episode?
What is the primary focus of nursing care during an acute manic episode?
The primary focus is on safety and maintaining physical health.
What are key components of a therapeutic milieu in nursing care?
Key components include:
How should self-care needs be maintained for clients in nursing care?
Self-care needs should be maintained by:
What communication strategies should be used when caring for clients in a manic episode?
Effective communication strategies include:
What is the role of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) in managing bipolar disorder?
ECT can moderate extreme manic behavior, especially when pharmacological therapy has been ineffective. It is also beneficial in cases of rapid cycling and suicidality.
What are some potential side effects of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?
ECT can cause transient confusion, memory loss, and headache.
What types of psychotherapy are beneficial for individuals with bipolar disorder?
Group, family, and individual psychotherapy, particularly Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT), are beneficial for improving problem-solving and interpersonal skills.
What is the importance of client education in managing bipolar disorder?
Client education is crucial for identifying indications of relapse, understanding precipitating factors, and recognizing the need for lifelong pharmacological and psychological support.
What lifestyle factors are important for individuals with bipolar disorder?
Maintaining a regular schedule and diet is important, as mania can lead to physical exhaustion and possible death.
What are the primary medications used to manage mood disorders?
Mood stabilizers are primarily used, including:
Anxiolytics like benzodiazepines can treat acute mania and manage psychomotor agitation.
Antipsychotics are useful in early treatment, promoting sleep, decreasing anxiety and agitation, and can also be mood-stabilizing.
Antidepressants can be useful during the depressive phase, typically prescribed with a mood stabilizer to prevent rebound mania.
What is the primary purpose of lithium carbonate as a mood stabilizer?
Lithium carbonate produces neurochemical changes in the brain, including serotonin receptor blockade. It has evidence suggesting it decreases neuronal atrophy and/or increases neuronal growth.
What are the therapeutic uses of lithium carbonate in treating bipolar disorders?
Lithium carbonate is used to:
What are the contraindications and precautions for using lithium carbonate?
Lithium carbonate should be used with caution in:
What interactions should be considered when using lithium carbonate?
Key interactions include:
What are the gastrointestinal complications associated with lithium use and how can they be managed?
Gastrointestinal complications include nausea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. These are usually transient and can be managed by taking lithium with food or milk.
What should be monitored to prevent renal toxicity in patients taking lithium?
To prevent renal toxicity, it is important to:
What are the long-term thyroid-related complications of lithium therapy?
Long-term complications include goiter and hypothyroidism. Management involves:
How can fine hand tremors caused by lithium be managed?
Fine hand tremors can interfere with purposeful motor skills and may be exacerbated by stress or caffeine. Management includes:
What lifestyle recommendations can help manage weight gain associated with lithium use?
To manage weight gain associated with lithium use, patients should:
What are the cardiovascular risks associated with lithium therapy?
Cardiovascular risks include dysrhythmias, hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances. To mitigate these risks, it is important to:
What are the common adverse effects of lithium at levels less than 1.5 mEq/L?
Common adverse effects include:
What are the early indications of lithium toxicity and their manifestations?
Early indications occur at lithium levels of 1.5-2.0 mEq/L, with manifestations including:
Withhold medication and notify the provider; may need to promote excretion and adjust the dose based on lithium and sodium levels.
What are the advanced indications of lithium toxicity and their potential consequences?
Advanced indications occur at lithium levels of 2.0-2.5 mEq/L, with manifestations such as:
Treatment may include administering an emetic or gastric lavage, and medications like urea, mannitol, or aminophylline to increase excretion.
What are the manifestations and treatment options for serum lithium toxicity greater than 2.5 mEq/L?
At lithium levels greater than 2.5 mEq/L, manifestations include rapid progression leading to coma and death. Treatment may warrant hemodialysis to manage the toxicity effectively.
What is the recommended plasma level range for lithium during the treatment of manic episodes?
The recommended plasma level range for lithium during the treatment of manic episodes is 1-1.5 mEq/L.
How often should lithium plasma levels be monitored after dose adjustments?
Lithium plasma levels should be monitored closely when adjusting the dose, and levels may be checked every 1-6 months once stable.
What are the initial effects and maximum benefits timeline for lithium treatment?
Effects of lithium begin in 5-7 days, with maximum benefits typically observed in 2-3 weeks.
What precautions should be taken regarding fluid and sodium intake while on lithium?
Patients should be advised on the importance of adequate fluid and sodium intake and maintaining a general healthy diet while on lithium.
What should patients be instructed to monitor for regarding lithium toxicity?
Patients should be instructed on how to monitor for signs of lithium toxicity and when to contact their healthcare provider.
Why is it important to take lithium with food?
Taking lithium with food can help decrease gastrointestinal upset.
What is the lithium level range during maintenance treatment?
The lithium level range during maintenance treatment is 0.5-1.2 mEq/L.
What is a significant risk for older adults taking lithium?
Older adults are at an increased risk of lithium adverse effects and toxicity.
What are the primary prototypes of mood stabilizers that are antiepileptics?
The primary prototypes are carbamazepine, valproate, and lamotrigine.
What is the purpose of mood stabilizers that are antiepileptics?
They help treat and manage bipolar disorder through various mechanisms, including slowing the entrance of sodium and calcium into neurons, potentiating GABA, and inhibiting glutamate to suppress its excitatory effects.
What are the therapeutic uses of antiepileptic mood stabilizers?
They are used to treat and prevent relapse of manic and depressive episodes, and are especially useful for individuals with mixed mania and rapid-cycling bipolar disorder.
What are the contraindications and precautions for using carbamazepine?
Carbamazepine is contraindicated in individuals with bone marrow suppression or bleeding disorders. It also has a higher risk in pregnancy, which can lead to birth defects.
What monitoring is required for patients taking valproate and carbamazepine?
Plasma levels of valproate and carbamazepine must be monitored during treatment. The therapeutic range for carbamazepine is 4-12 mcg/mL and for valproic acid is 50-120 mcg/mL.
What is a critical consideration when titrating lamotrigine?
Lamotrigine must be slowly titrated to prevent Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
What are the CNS effects associated with carbamazepine use?
CNS effects include minimal impact on cognitive function, nystagmus, double vision, vertigo, staggering gait, and headache. It is recommended to gradually increase the dose and administer it at bedtime.
What blood dyscrasias should be monitored in patients taking carbamazepine?
Patients should be monitored for leukopenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia. It is important to obtain a baseline CBC and platelets and monitor regularly for signs of thrombocytopenia, such as bruising and bleeding of gums, as well as indications of infection like fever or lethargy.
What precautions should be taken regarding carbamazepine use in pregnancy?
Carbamazepine should be avoided in pregnancy due to the risk of teratogenesis.
What are the signs of hypo-osmolarity that should be monitored in patients taking carbamazepine?
Signs of hypo-osmolarity include edema, decrease in urine output, and hypertension. Blood sodium levels should be monitored regularly.
What skin disorders can occur with carbamazepine use and how should they be treated?
Skin disorders associated with carbamazepine include dermatitis and rash, such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS). Mild reactions can be treated with anti-inflammatories or antihistamines, and patients should be advised to wear sunscreen.
What are the common complications associated with lamotrigine?
Common complications include:
Patients should avoid activities that require concentration or visual acuity.
What should be done if serious skin rashes occur while taking lamotrigine?
If serious skin rashes occur, the medication should be withheld and the provider should be notified immediately. It is also important to slowly titrate the dose when initiating treatment.
What are the gastrointestinal side effects of valproate and how can they be managed?
Gastrointestinal side effects of valproate include:
These effects are generally self-limiting. To manage them, it is recommended to take the medication with food or use an enteric-coated formulation.
What are the serious complications associated with valproate?
Serious complications of valproate include:
What are the interactions associated with Carbamazepine?
How does Lamotrigine interact with other medications?
What are the interactions related to Valproate?
What are some examples of atypical antipsychotics?
Examples of atypical antipsychotics include:
How do atypical antipsychotics alleviate positive symptoms in patients?
Atypical antipsychotics alleviate positive symptoms by:
In what situations are atypical antipsychotics useful?
Atypical antipsychotics are useful during:
What are some indicators of effectiveness in therapeutic interventions for bipolar disorder?
Effectiveness can be evidenced by:
What are the characteristics and manifestations of substance use and addictive disorders?
Substance use and addictive disorders are characterized by:
What is the impact of substance use and addictive disorders?
The impact of substance use and addictive disorders includes:
What considerations should be made regarding specific populations vulnerable to substance use and addiction?
Considerations for specific vulnerable populations include:
What are the different pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic therapies used for treating substance use and addictive disorders?
Therapies for substance use and addictive disorders include:
Pharmacologic therapies:
Nonpharmacologic therapies:
What is involved in planning evidence-based nursing care for patients with substance use and addictive disorders?
Planning evidence-based nursing care involves:
What is dual diagnosis?
Dual diagnosis refers to the co-occurring substance use and mental illness.
What are designer drugs?
Designer drugs are illegally produced chemical compounds that are similar in effect to another drug, often resulting in more serious and potent effects than the original drug.
What defines substance use disorder?
Substance use disorder is characterized by the continued use of a substance without regard to negative consequences.
What does addiction signify in the context of substance use?
Addiction is associated with the active disease state of substance use disorder.
How is impulsivity defined in psychological terms?
A predisposition toward rapid, unplanned reactions to internal and external stimuli without regard for negative consequences.
What does tolerance mean in the context of drug use?
A person's diminished response to a drug that is the result of repeated use.
What is meant by relapse in substance use recovery?
The return of symptoms after stabilization.
What does self-medicating refer to?
Using substances to compensate or improve symptoms of another illness.
Define sobriety in relation to substance use.
Complete abstinence from substances in conjunction with a satisfactory quality of life.
What is withdrawal in the context of substance use?
Onset of signs and symptoms following abrupt discontinuation of OR rapid decrease in use of a substance.
What trend has been observed in marijuana use among adults aged 26 and older since 2015?
The percentage of adults age 26 and older using marijuana daily or almost daily has nearly doubled since 2015.
How have cocaine use and overdose rates changed since 2012?
Cocaine use and death rates have risen, with cocaine-involved overdose rates in the U.S. rising annually since 2012.
What significant change occurred in meth use and overdose death rates between 2011 and 2018 for individuals aged 25 to 54?
Meth use is on the rise, and overdose death rates climbed more than five-fold for those ages 25 to 54 between 2011 and 2018.
What is the current status of the opioid crisis in the United States as of May 2022?
The nation remains in a prescription and illicit opioids crisis, with over 82,000 drug overdose deaths occurring in the U.S. in the 12 months ending in May 2022.
How does the age of initial substance use impact the likelihood of developing Substance Use Disorder (SUD)?
The younger a person is at initial substance use, the more likely they are to develop SUD.
What percentage of adolescents report access to marijuana?
Half of adolescents report access to marijuana.
What are some risks associated with substance use in older adults?
Older adults who use substances are at higher risk for:
What are some indications of alcohol use in older adults?
Indications of alcohol use can include:
How does alcohol use affect older adults compared to younger individuals?
Older adults can show effects of alcohol use at lower levels compared to younger individuals.
What is polypharmacy and why is it a concern for older adults using substances?
Polypharmacy refers to the use of multiple prescribed medications, which can lead to potential interactions with substances used by older adults.
What biological factors increase vulnerability to substance use disorder (SUD)?
What psychological traits are associated with a higher risk of developing substance use disorder (SUD)?
What social factors contribute to a greater risk of substance use disorder (SUD)?
What neurological changes occur in the brain due to prolonged substance use?
Prolonged exposure to substances causes changes in brain circuitry, particularly in the neural circuits of pleasure, which include the nucleus accumbens, amygdala, and prefrontal cortex. These changes can lead to euphoria, calm, and well-being during initial use, but may result in tolerance and physical dependence with continued use.
What is the relationship between substance use and the development of addictive disorders?
Some individuals may develop an addictive disorder after only a few exposures to a substance, while others may take longer-term use to develop the disorder. This variability is influenced by individual differences in brain circuitry and response to substances.
What is tolerance in the context of substance use?
Tolerance refers to the phenomenon where increasing amounts of a substance are required to achieve the same effects, such as euphoria or calm, due to the body's adaptation to the substance over time.
What are withdrawal symptoms and when do they occur?
Withdrawal symptoms occur when there is a physical dependence on a substance, which can happen after increasing frequency and amount of use. These symptoms can manifest when consistent use is interrupted.
What are two important features of addiction explained by the effect of addictive drugs on the brain's reward pathways?
The inability to limit or cease substance use.
The irresistible urge to continue seeking and taking the drug despite serious negative consequences.
What are some commonly abused substances?
What types of disorders does the DSM-5 recognize related to substance use?
The DSM-5 recognizes the following types of disorders related to substance use:
Substance-related disorders
Substance-induced disorders
What are the categories of DSM-5 Substance Related Disorders?
The categories of DSM-5 Substance Related Disorders include:
Specific substances include:
What are the criteria for diagnosing a use disorder according to DSM-5?
The criteria for diagnosing a use disorder include:
What are the clinical manifestations of alcohol intoxication?
What are the adverse effects of alcohol withdrawal?
Withdrawal can be fatal
What psychological effects can alcohol use lead to in terms of suicide and self-injury?
What are the characteristics of Delirium Tremens (DT)?
What nursing considerations should be taken into account for patients with alcohol use issues?
What constitutes one unit of alcohol?
One unit of alcohol is represented by:
What are examples of alcoholic beverages that contain more than one unit of alcohol?
Examples of beverages containing more than one unit of alcohol include:
What are the long-term effects associated with chronic use of substances?
The long-term effects associated with chronic use include:
What are the intended effects of benzodiazepines in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal?
What nursing care should be provided when administering benzodiazepines for alcohol withdrawal?
What are the intended effects of adjunct medications like Carbamazepine, Clonidine, Propranolol, and Atenolol in alcohol withdrawal treatment?
What nursing care should be taken when administering adjunct medications for alcohol withdrawal?
What is the mechanism of action of Naltrexone (Vivitrol) in the treatment of alcohol use disorder?
Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist that blocks receptors in the brain responsible for producing alcohol's pleasurable effects, thereby reducing the urge to drink.
What nursing care should be taken when administering Naltrexone?
Assess the client's history for opioid dependence as concurrent use increases the risk of opioid toxicity.
What are the common side effects of Acamprosate (Campral) and how should it be taken?
Acamprosate can cause diarrhea; it should be taken orally three times a day (TID) to help reduce unpleasant effects of abstinence such as dysphoria, anxiety, and restlessness. Maintaining adequate hydration is important.
What is the purpose of Disulfiram (Antabuse) in alcohol treatment?
Disulfiram is a daily oral medication that acts as a type of aversion therapy; it causes acetaldehyde syndrome when alcohol is consumed, leading to severe reactions.
What are the potential severe effects of consuming alcohol while on Disulfiram (Antabuse)?
Consuming alcohol while on Disulfiram can lead to acetaldehyde syndrome, which includes symptoms like weakness, sweating, palpitations, hypotension, and can progress to respiratory depression, cardiovascular depression, seizures, and death.
What nursing care is essential when a patient is on Disulfiram (Antabuse)?
It is essential to monitor liver function due to the risk of hepatotoxicity associated with Disulfiram.
What education should be provided to patients taking Disulfiram (Antabuse)?
Patients should be educated that drinking alcohol can be dangerous while on Disulfiram, and they should avoid products containing alcohol and consider joining self-help groups.
What are the observations for nausea and vomiting in a patient assessment?
Observations for nausea and vomiting are as follows:
| Score | Description |
|---|---|
| 0 | No nausea and no vomiting |
| 1 | Mild nausea with no vomiting |
| 2 | - |
| 3 | - |
| 4 | Intermittent nausea with dry heaves |
| 5 | - |
| 6 | - |
| 7 | Constant nausea, frequent dry heaves, and vomiting |
How is tremor assessed in a patient?
Tremor is assessed by asking the patient to extend their arms and spread their fingers apart. The observations are:
| Score | Description |
|---|---|
| 0 | No tremor |
| 1 | Tremor not visible but can be felt, fingertip to fingertip |
| 2 | - |
| 3 | - |
| 4 | Moderate tremor with arms extended |
| 5 | - |
| 6 | - |
| 7 | Severe tremor, even with arms not extended |
What are the observations for anxiety in a patient assessment?
Observations for anxiety are as follows:
| Score | Description |
|---|---|
| 0 | No anxiety (at ease) |
| 1 | Mildly anxious |
| 2 | - |
| 3 | - |
| 4 | Moderately anxious or guarded, so anxiety is inferred |
| 5 | - |
| 6 | - |
| 7 | Equivalent to acute panic states as occur in severe delirium or acute schizophrenic reactions |
How is agitation observed in a patient?
Agitation is observed through the following scale:
| Score | Description |
|---|---|
| 0 | Normal activity |
| 1 | Somewhat more than normal activity |
| 2 | - |
| 3 | - |
| 4 | Moderately fidgety and restless |
| 5 | - |
| 6 | - |
| 7 | Paces back and forth during most of the interview or constantly thrashes about |
What are the observations for tactile disturbances in a patient assessment?
Observations for tactile disturbances are as follows:
| Score | Description |
|---|---|
| 0 | None |
| 1 | Very mild itching, pins-and-needles sensation, burning, numbness |
| 2 | Mild itching, pins-and-needles sensation, burning, numbness |
| 3 | Moderate itching, pins-and-needles sensation, burning, or numbness |
| 4 | Moderately severe hallucinations |
| 5 | Severe hallucinations |
| 6 | Extremely severe hallucinations |
| 7 | Continuous hallucinations |
How are auditory disturbances assessed in a patient?
Auditory disturbances are assessed with the following observations:
| Score | Description |
|---|---|
| 0 | Not present |
| 1 | Very mild harshness or ability to frighten |
| 2 | Mild harshness or ability to frighten |
| 3 | Moderate harshness or ability to frighten |
| 4 | Moderately severe hallucinations |
| 5 | Severe hallucinations |
| 6 | Extremely severe hallucinations |
| 7 | Continuous hallucinations |
What are the observations for visual disturbances in a patient assessment?
Observations for visual disturbances are as follows:
| Score | Description |
|---|---|
| 0 | Not present |
| 1 | Very mild sensitivity |
| 2 | Mild sensitivity |
| 3 | Moderate sensitivity |
| 4 | Moderately severe hallucinations |
| 5 | Severe hallucinations |
| 6 | Extremely severe hallucinations |
| 7 | Continuous hallucinations |
How is headache and fullness in the head assessed in a patient?
Headache and fullness in the head are assessed with the following observations:
| Score | Description |
|---|---|
| 0 | Not present |
| 1 | Very mild |
| 2 | Mild |
| 3 | Moderate |
| 4 | Moderately severe |
| 5 | Severe |
| 6 | Very severe |
| 7 | Extremely severe |
How is orientation and clouding of sensorium assessed in a patient?
Orientation and clouding of sensorium are assessed with the following observations:
| Score | Description |
|---|---|
| 0 | Orientated and can do serial additions |
| 1 | Cannot do serial additions, is uncertain about date |
| 2 | Date disorientation by more than two calendar days |
| 3 | Date disorientation by more than two calendar days |
| 4 | Disorientated for place and/or person |
What are the common clinical manifestations of opioid use?
What are the signs of opioid intoxication?
What are the symptoms of opioid withdrawal?
What nursing considerations should be taken when dealing with opioid use?
What is the role of Methadone in treating opioid dependence?
Methadone is an opioid agonist that replaces the opioid to which the client has physical dependence. It is used for withdrawal and long-term maintenance, transferring dependence from illegal opioids to methadone. Nursing care includes encouraging participation in a 12-Step program, and education emphasizes that methadone must be slowly tapered. It must be administered from an approved treatment center.
What are the intended effects of Suboxone in opioid treatment?
Suboxone, which contains buprenorphine-naloxone, acts as a partial opioid agonist (agonist-antagonist). It is used for withdrawal and maintenance, and it helps to decrease cravings for opioids. Nursing care involves administering it sublingually.
How does Clonidine assist in opioid detoxification?
Clonidine helps reduce symptoms of detoxification, such as sweating, hot flashes, and watery eyes, by blocking chemicals in the brain that trigger the sympathetic nervous system. Education for patients includes avoiding activities that require mental alertness and using sugarless gum or hard candy to alleviate dry mouth.
What does a resting pulse rate score of 4 indicate in the COWS assessment?
A resting pulse rate score of 4 indicates a pulse rate greater than 120 beats per minute.
In the COWS assessment, what does a score of 3 for sweating represent?
A score of 3 for sweating represents beads of sweat on the brow or face.
What does a score of 5 for restlessness indicate in the COWS assessment?
A score of 5 for restlessness indicates the patient is unable to sit still for more than a few seconds.
How is pupil size scored in the COWS assessment?
Pupil size is scored based on the following: 0 for normal size, 1 for possibly larger than normal, 2 for moderately dilated, and 5 for pupils so dilated that only the rim of the iris is visible.
What does a score of 2 for GI upset indicate in the COWS assessment?
A score of 2 for GI upset indicates nausea or loose stool.
In the COWS assessment, what does a score of 4 for tremor signify?
A score of 4 for tremor signifies gross tremor or muscle twitching.
What does a score of 1 for anxiety or irritability indicate in the COWS assessment?
A score of 1 for anxiety or irritability indicates that the patient reports increasing irritability or anxiousness.
What does a score of 5 for gooseflesh skin represent in the COWS assessment?
A score of 5 for gooseflesh skin represents prominent piloerection.
What are the types of stimulant substances?
The types of stimulant substances include:
What are the effects of stimulants on the body?
The effects of stimulants on the body include:
What are the clinical manifestations of amphetamine use?
What are the potential adverse effects of withdrawal from amphetamines?
What nursing considerations should be taken for patients withdrawing from amphetamines?
What is the primary focus of nursing care during withdrawal and intoxication?
The primary focus is safety, which includes preventing falls, implementing seizure precautions, and close observation for withdrawal manifestations.
What are some key nursing interventions during withdrawal and intoxication?
Key interventions include:
What role does emotional support play in nursing care for clients undergoing withdrawal?
Emotional support and reassurance are crucial for both the client and their family, helping to alleviate anxiety and promote a supportive environment during recovery.
What is the initial treatment goal for clients in withdrawal?
The initial treatment goal is abstinence from substances, which is essential for recovery.
How can nurses help develop motivation for abstinence in clients?
Nurses can use Motivational Interviewing techniques to encourage self-responsibility and commitment to recovery, fostering a sense of ownership in the treatment process.
What educational points should nurses cover regarding medication safety at home?
Nurses should educate clients to:
What is the importance of self-help groups in the recovery process?
Self-help groups provide support, encouragement, and a sense of community, which can be vital for individuals striving for recovery and maintaining abstinence.
What is the purpose of SBIRT?
SBIRT is an avenue to help individuals identify and address problems in life that arise from substance use/abuse. It promotes significant, lasting reductions in risky use of alcohol and other drugs through brief interventions.
What is the first phase of SBIRT and what does it involve?
Phase 1 is 'ESTABLISH RAPPORT,' which involves assuring confidentiality and administering assessments.
What actions are taken during Phase 2 of SBIRT?
Phase 2 is 'ELICIT THOUGHTS - PROVIDE FEEDBACK,' which includes exploring the pros and cons of changing and providing education.
What is the focus of Phase 3 in the SBIRT process?
Phase 3 is 'ENHANCE MOTIVATION,' focusing on assessing readiness to change and enhancing motivation.
What does Phase 4 of SBIRT entail?
Phase 4 is 'NEGOTIATE A PLAN,' which involves summarizing the session and inviting the patient back for further discussion.
What are some key roles of nurses in promoting hope for patients?