What are the types of syncope?
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Vasovagal and cardiac syncope.
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What are the types of syncope?
Vasovagal and cardiac syncope.
Under what conditions do NICE guidelines suggest starting antiepileptics after the first seizure?
If there is a structural abnormality on brain imaging, neurological deficit, unequivocal EEG activity, or unacceptable seizure risk perceived by the patient or their family.
What medication is primarily used in the management of motor neuron disease?
Riluzole, which prevents stimulation of glutamate receptors and is mainly used in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
What are the typical clinical signs of motor neuron disease?
No cerebellar signs; abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction, if present, is a late feature.
What should patients be educated about regarding reflex syncope?
Patients should be informed that reflex syncope is generally benign and taught to recognize prodromal symptoms.
What are the components of VTE prophylaxis?
TEDS (thromboembolic deterrent stockings) and LMWH (low molecular weight heparin).
What should be considered for women taking contraception and anti-epileptic medication?
The possible interactions between the contraceptive and anti-epileptic medication.
What congenital condition is phenytoin associated with?
Cleft palate.
What is the most common cause of trigeminal neuralgia?
The vast majority of cases are idiopathic.
What is the focus of management in myasthenia gravis?
Understanding the principles of management of type 2 respiratory failure.
What is subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?
The presence of blood within the subarachnoid space.
What is the treatment for temporal arteritis if there is no visual loss?
High-dose prednisolone.
What is monitored to assess respiratory function?
Forced vital capacity.
What are common prodromal symptoms of syncope?
Sweating, pallor, dizziness, nausea/vomiting, lightheadedness, visual disturbances, tinnitus, and muffled hearing.
What should be assessed regarding dizziness?
The nature and triggers of dizziness.
What types of analgesia are used for radiculopathy-related back pain?
NSAIDs or opiates.
What is the typical starting dose of Fludrocortisone for reflex syncope?
100 micrograms daily, titrated based on clinical response and side effects.
What is the most common cause of traumatic SAH?
Head injury.
When do most neurologists start antiepileptic medication?
Following a second epileptic seizure.
What factors should be assessed regarding weakness in stroke patients?
Distribution, severity, onset, duration, and course of the weakness.
What are counter-pressure maneuvers that can help with syncopal episodes?
Leg crossing with tensing muscles or handgrip exercises.
Who is predominantly affected by carotid sinus syncope?
Older individuals.
What is a characteristic feature of tension headaches?
A 'tight band' around the head or a pressure sensation.
What are common trigger factors for trigeminal neuralgia pain?
Light touch, combing hair, washing, shaving, smoking, talking, and brushing teeth.
What type of disturbance can affect a patient's ability to walk and coordinate movements?
Ataxia.
What should be done for patients under 50 presenting with features suggestive of cerebral venous thrombosis (CVT)?
They should be urgently investigated for CVT.
What should be done if there is no dramatic response to treatment for temporal arteritis?
Reconsider the diagnosis.
What dental issue can be corrected to improve oral health?
Misaligned teeth.
What type of blood tests are important in management?
Arterial blood gas (ABG) tests.
What is a primary headache?
A headache with no underlying cause.
What is the most common risk factor for CVT?
Prothrombotic condition.
Name a genetic risk factor for CVT.
Antiphospholipid syndrome.
What is the duration of intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) treatment?
A 5-day course.
What is temporal arteritis also known as?
Giant cell arteritis.
Which infections are commonly associated with CVT?
Staphylococcus aureus, meningitis, or subdural empyema.
What are common symptoms following a generalized seizure?
Patients may bite their tongue and experience incontinence of urine.
What is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing cerebral venous thrombosis?
MRI with venography.
How soon should patients with visual symptoms be seen by an ophthalmologist?
The same day.
What are some conditions associated with berry aneurysms?
Hypertension, adult polycystic kidney disease, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and coarctation of the aorta.
What is the first-line drug treatment for males with generalized tonic-clonic seizures?
Sodium valproate.
What is the most common pattern of Motor Neuron Disease?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (50% of patients).
Why should sodium valproate be avoided during pregnancy?
It is teratogenic and can harm fetal development.
What triggers vasovagal syncope?
A sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate triggered by emotion, pain, stress, or standing for a long time.
What is the effect of Riluzole on life expectancy?
It prolongs life by about 3 months.
What can compress the trigeminal roots and potentially cause trigeminal neuralgia?
Tumours or vascular problems.
How does the International Headache Society define trigeminal neuralgia?
A unilateral disorder characterized by brief electric shock-like pains, abrupt in onset and termination, limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve.
What does dysarthria feel like?
"My speech was really slurred, it sounded like I was drunk."
What are common symptoms of neurological disorders?
Headaches, seizures, weakness, numbness, and changes in coordination.
What is the first-line treatment for status epilepticus?
Benzodiazepines.
What are the types of meningitis and encephalitis?
Bacterial and viral meningitis, HIV/AIDS related infections, and immune encephalitis.
What is a key risk of untreated temporal arteritis?
Permanent loss of vision.
What visual symptoms can occur in stroke patients?
Visual disturbance.
What is the typical age of patients affected by temporal arteritis?
Patients are usually over 60 years old.
When might a referral to an ENT specialist be necessary?
In severe or chronic cases.
What symptoms should be explored when assessing a headache?
Pain characteristics, meningism symptoms (rash, fever, neck stiffness, photophobia), giant cell arteritis symptoms (visual problems, jaw claudication, scalp tenderness), and glaucoma symptoms (visual blurring, red eye, halos around lights).
What is cerebral venous thrombosis (CVT)?
CVT is caused by partial or total occlusion of the cerebral veins and sinuses by a thrombus.
What lifestyle modifications should be encouraged to prevent reflex syncope?
Avoiding dehydration, prolonged standing, and hot environments; rising slowly from lying or sitting positions; ensuring adequate salt intake if no contraindications exist.
What defines status epilepticus?
A single seizure lasting more than 5 minutes, or two seizures within a 5-minute period without returning to normal.
What are common symptoms of a migraine?
A severe, unilateral, throbbing headache associated with nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia.
What is a conservative management strategy for migraines?
Avoidance of triggers such as certain foods or stressors, including poor sleep.
What is the driving restriction for patients after a seizure?
Patients generally cannot drive for 6 months following a seizure.
What is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine.
What should be considered for young people aged 12-17 years for acute migraine treatment?
A nasal triptan in preference to an oral triptan.
What neurological deficits may occur due to CVT?
Motor weakness (e.g., hemiparesis), fluent aphasia, sensory/visual field defects.
At what age does Motor Neuron Disease typically present?
It rarely presents before 40 years.
What is a focal aware seizure?
A simple partial seizure where patients are aware and post-ictal symptoms are absent.
What is a hemiplegic migraine?
A variant of migraine in which motor weakness is a manifestation of aura in at least some attacks.
What imaging technique is used to identify vascular lesions such as aneurysms or AVMs in SAH?
CT intracranial angiogram.
What are the types of focal seizures?
Motor, non-motor, and those with features such as aura.
What investigations are used for diagnosing temporomandibular joint dysfunction?
Comprehensive health history, physical examination, dental X-rays, CT scan or MRI.
What are the signs of Primary Lateral Sclerosis?
UMN signs only.
How is invasive ICP monitoring performed?
By placing a catheter into the lateral ventricles of the brain.
How is motor neuron disease diagnosed?
Diagnosis is clinical; nerve conduction studies show normal motor conduction, and EMG shows reduced action potentials with increased amplitude.
What aspects of memory loss should be evaluated?
Short/long-term memory, insight and concerns, functional levels, cognitive assessment, and risk to self/others.
What type of respiratory care is commonly used for patients with motor neuron disease?
Non-invasive ventilation (usually BIPAP) is used at night, showing a survival benefit of around 7 months.
What does receptive dysphasia feel like?
"I wasn’t able to understand anyone, they were speaking gibberish."
What type of infarctions are sometimes seen in sagittal sinus thrombosis?
Parasagittal biparietal or bifrontal haemorrhagic infarctions.
What are the common neuromuscular conditions?
Guillain Barre syndrome (GBS), chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP), motor neuron disease (MND), myasthenia gravis, Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome, multiple sclerosis, and neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorders.
What are some red flags suggesting a serious underlying cause of trigeminal neuralgia?
Optic neuritis, family history of multiple sclerosis, pain only in the ophthalmic division, sensory changes, deafness, age of onset before 40 years.
What is spontaneous SAH?
SAH that occurs in the absence of trauma.
What are some symptoms of cerebral venous thrombosis?
New headache, nausea and vomiting, seizures, papilloedema, focal neurological deficits, changes in mental state, and encephalopathy.
What is epilepsy?
A neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures.
What prophylactic measure is recommended for women who developed CVT during pregnancy?
Prophylactic anticoagulation during future pregnancies.
What should be considered if status epilepticus is ongoing?
Start a second-line agent such as levetiracetam, phenytoin, or sodium valproate.
What does an elevated D-dimer indicate in the context of CVT?
It supports a diagnosis of CVT alongside neuroimaging findings.
What is a key characteristic of cluster headaches?
They occur in clusters lasting several weeks, typically once a year.
What is the first-line investigation for suspected SAH?
Non-contrast CT head.
What is the definitive investigation for diagnosing temporal arteritis?
Temporal artery biopsy.
Why is the combined oral contraceptive pill contraindicated for patients with migraine with aura?
Due to an increased risk of stroke (relative risk 8.72).
What is the first-line treatment for myoclonic seizures in females?
Levetiracetam.
What should be done if CT shows evidence of SAH?
Referral to neurosurgery should be made as soon as SAH is confirmed.
What is a major complication associated with aneurysmal SAH?
Re-bleeding, which can have a mortality rate of up to 70%.
What is a common symptom of stroke related to muscle function?
Weakness.
Is breastfeeding safe for mothers taking antiepileptics?
Generally considered safe, with possible exceptions for barbiturates.
What does expressive dysphasia feel like?
"I knew what I wanted to say, but I couldn’t get it out."
What is a characteristic feature of migraine attacks?
They may last up to 72 hours.
What sensory symptoms should be assessed?
Pain, numbness, and tingling.
How long can prodromal symptoms last before syncope occurs?
Several seconds to minutes.
What do patients typically do during a migraine attack?
They go to a darkened, quiet room.
What is the first-line acute treatment for migraines?
Oral triptan (e.g., sumatriptan) and an NSAID, or oral triptan and paracetamol.
What is the initial dosing for Midodrine?
2.5 mg two to three times daily, titrated up to a maximum of 10 mg three times daily if tolerated.
What is generally used in hospitals for status epilepticus?
IV lorazepam, which may be repeated once after 5-10 minutes.
What distinguishes anterior circulation stroke from posterior circulation stroke?
Clinical presentation differences based on carotid territory versus vertebral and basilar territories.
What are common triggers for migraines?
Tiredness, stress, alcohol, combined oral contraceptive pill, menstruation, bright lights, lack of food or dehydration, cheese, chocolate, citrus fruits, and red wines.
What are alcohol or glycerol injections used for in trigeminal neuralgia management?
To damage the trigeminal nerve and reduce pain signals.
What are the first-line prophylactic treatments for migraines?
Propranolol, Amitriptyline, or Topiramate (with caution in women of childbearing age).
Who is more commonly affected by cluster headaches?
Men (3:1 ratio) and smokers.
What is the aim for antiepileptic medication management?
Aim for monotherapy.
What initial investigations are recommended for raised intracranial pressure?
ABCDE assessment and neuroimaging (CT/MRI).
What type of therapy is used for acute antithrombotic treatment in CVT?
Low molecular weight heparin or unfractionated heparin.
Is hormone replacement therapy (HRT) safe for patients with a history of migraine?
Yes, but it may make migraines worse.
What does Progressive Bulbar Palsy affect?
The tongue, muscles of chewing/swallowing, and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei.
What is the prognosis of Progressive Bulbar Palsy?
It carries the worst prognosis.
What can cause volume depletion leading to syncope?
Haemorrhage and diarrhoea.
What are the upper motor neuron signs?
Hypertonia, hyperreflexia, minimal atrophy, and Babinski sign.
What is the first-line treatment for myasthenia gravis?
Long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, specifically pyridostigmine.
What is one use of oral splints or mouth guards?
To manage dental issues or protect teeth.
What role does MRI play in diagnosing motor neuron disease?
MRI is performed to exclude differential diagnoses such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy.
What are the types of dysphasia associated with stroke?
Expressive dysphasia, receptive dysphasia, and dysarthria.
What is a secondary headache?
A headache caused by an underlying condition.
What should be administered urgently upon suspicion of temporal arteritis?
High-dose glucocorticoids.
What does the November 2013 Drug Safety Update conclude about sodium valproate?
It should not be used during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age unless clearly necessary.
What is the recommended duration for long-term anticoagulation with warfarin in provoked CVT?
3 - 6 months.
What treatment is usually given if there is evolving visual loss in temporal arteritis?
IV methylprednisolone.
What are some causes of cavernous sinus syndrome?
Local infection (e.g., sinusitis), neoplasia, trauma.
What percentage of individuals with cerebral palsy have epilepsy?
Around 30%.
Why should Sodium Valproate be avoided during pregnancy?
It is teratogenic.
What is contraindicated in ischaemic heart disease?
Triptans.
What is myasthenia gravis?
An autoimmune disorder that affects neuromuscular transmission.
What additional treatment is required for bone protection in temporal arteritis?
Bisphosphonates.
What cranial nerve palsies are associated with lateral sinus thrombosis?
6th and 7th cranial nerve palsies.
What is cerebral venous thrombosis?
A condition where a blood clot forms in the brain's venous sinuses.
What triggers may lead to a cluster headache attack?
Alcohol.
What can be used if weaning off steroids is problematic?
Steroid-sparing agents like methotrexate or biological agents (e.g., tocilizumab).
What is the recommended time frame for surgical intervention in intracranial aneurysms?
Preferably within 24 hours.
What is the mechanism behind vision alteration in temporal arteritis?
Occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery leading to ischaemia of the anterior optic nerve head.
What is one method of managing raised intracranial pressure?
Head elevation to 30º.
What role does IV mannitol play in managing raised intracranial pressure?
It acts as an osmotic diuretic to reduce ICP.
What adverse effect is associated with sodium valproate?
Increased appetite and weight gain.
What are some adverse effects of lamotrigine?
Blurred vision, rash, dizziness, headache.
What is the purpose of the Tensilon test in myasthenia gravis?
To temporarily reduce muscle weakness using IV edrophonium.
What should be assessed regarding fits, falls, or loss of consciousness (LOC)?
Warning signs, circumstances before, duration, movements during, and after effects like amnesia or confusion.
What characterizes trigeminal neuralgia?
Severe unilateral pain.
What should pregnant women taking phenytoin be given in the last month of pregnancy?
Vitamin K, to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.
What motor symptoms should be evaluated?
Weakness patterns, character of weakness, and incontinence.
What is the primary focus of neurology?
The diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the nervous system.
Why is status epilepticus considered a medical emergency?
Prolonged seizure activity can lead to irreversible brain damage.
What is plasmapheresis and how does it compare to IVIG?
Plasmapheresis has similar efficacy to IVIG but is associated with more side effects.
What is the recommended duration for long-term anticoagulation with warfarin in unprovoked CVT?
6 - 12 months.
How long must patients with established epilepsy be seizure-free before driving?
12 months.
What are the types of dementia?
Alzheimer's disease (AD), frontotemporal dementia (FTD), and vascular dementia.
Which cranial nerve damage typically occurs first in cavernous sinus thrombosis?
6th nerve damage.
What is the primary cause of headaches due to raised intracranial pressure?
Additional volume in the skull, such as haematoma, tumour, or excessive CSF.
What is a common symptom of SAH?
Sudden-onset headache, often described as 'thunderclap' or 'worst of my life'.
What are some common causes of temporomandibular joint dysfunction?
Trauma to the jaw, stress (causing bruxism), arthritis in the TMJ, and abnormal jaw or tooth alignment.
What are the typical signs of Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
Typically LMN signs in arms and UMN signs in legs or a mixture of both.
What is required when tapering off steroids in temporal arteritis treatment?
A tapering course of steroids.
What does the 'halo sign' indicate in Doppler ultrasonography for temporal arteritis?
It indicates inflammation in the vessel wall.
What treatment is recommended for women with predictable menstrual migraines?
Frovatriptan or zolmitriptan as a type of 'mini-prophylaxis'.
What is the first-line treatment for tonic or atonic seizures in males?
Sodium valproate.
What is the first-line treatment for tonic or atonic seizures in females?
Lamotrigine.
What is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of cluster headaches?
Verapamil.
Which gender is more commonly affected by myasthenia gravis?
Women (2:1 ratio compared to men).
What are some techniques for removing CSF to manage raised ICP?
Intraventricular drain, repeated lumbar puncture, and ventriculoperitoneal shunt.
What symptoms may occur with hypercapnia?
Bounding radial pulse, asterixis, headache, flushing, and confusion.
What is syncope?
A transient loss of consciousness due to global cerebral hypoperfusion with rapid onset, short duration, and spontaneous complete recovery.
What is the purpose of venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis?
To prevent blood clots.
What are the common types of headaches?
Migraine, tension headache, cluster headache, trigeminal neuralgia, temporomandibular joint pain, headache of raised intracranial pressure, subarachnoid hemorrhage headache, cerebral sinus venous thrombosis, temporal arteritis, and cerebral vasculitis.
What significant risk is associated with maternal use of sodium valproate?
Neurodevelopmental delay in children.
What is the prognosis for patients with motor neuron disease?
Poor; 50% of patients die within 3 years.
What are some side effects of Sodium Valproate?
Anaemia, confusion, gastric irritation, haemorrhage, hyponatraemia, tremor, weight gain.
What specific characteristic of weakness is important in myasthenia gravis?
Weakness is fatigable.
What is a common type of headache?
Migraine.
What differentiates tension headaches from migraines?
Tension headaches are typically bilateral and of lower intensity, not associated with aura, nausea/vomiting, or aggravated by routine physical activity.
What should prompt a referral to neurology in trigeminal neuralgia cases?
Failure to respond to treatment or atypical features, such as being under 50 years old.
What sign can be observed on cranial CT or CT venography indicative of CVT?
The 'empty delta sign'.
What are first-line treatments for acute tension headaches?
Aspirin, paracetamol, or an NSAID.
What is the primary aim of investigation after confirming spontaneous SAH?
To identify a causative pathology that needs urgent treatment.
What characterizes focal impaired awareness seizures?
Patients are not aware, and post-ictal symptoms like confusion and drowsiness are common.
What is Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)?
An immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system.
What is the driving restriction for patients after a seizure?
Patients generally cannot drive for 6 months following a seizure.
Is there an indication to monitor antiepileptic drug levels?
No indication to monitor.
What are common systemic symptoms associated with temporal arteritis?
Lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, night sweats.
What occurs during myoclonic seizures?
Sudden jerks of a limb, trunk, or face.
What are the later symptoms of Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
Symmetrical and ascending weakness of all limbs, paraesthesia, and reduced or absent reflexes.
In what percentage of myasthenia gravis cases are antibodies to acetylcholine receptors found?
85 - 90%.
What are common symptoms of hypoxia and/or hypercapnia?
Dyspnoea, agitation, accessory muscle use, reduced consciousness, and confusion.
What are common findings in nerve conduction studies for Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
Decreased motor nerve conduction velocity, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.
Are there any cerebellar signs in Motor Neuron Disease?
No, there are no cerebellar signs.
What is carotid sinus syncope?
A type of syncope resulting from hypersensitivity of carotid sinus baroreceptors leading to bradycardia and/or vasodilation upon stimulation.
What is the preferred method for nutritional support in motor neuron disease?
Percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG) is preferred and associated with prolonged survival.
What are the potential consequences of carotid sinus syncope?
Recurrent falls due to transient loss of consciousness.
What are some acquired risk factors for CVT?
Pregnancy, oral contraceptive pill use, malignancy.
What is the mechanism of action of Midodrine?
It is an alpha-1 adrenergic agonist that causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure.
What is situational syncope?
A type of reflex syncope triggered by specific situations such as coughing, micturition, or gastrointestinal events.
What cognitive assessment can be performed during a neurological history taking?
Mini mental state examination.
What is the postictal phase after a seizure?
A phase where patients feel drowsy and tired for around 15 minutes or more.
What are the types of syncope?
Vasovagal, cardiac, and orthostatic syncope.
What is a potential consequence of visual damage in temporal arteritis?
It is often irreversible.
What may trigeminal nerve involvement in cavernous sinus thrombosis lead to?
Hyperaesthesia of the upper face and eye pain.
How can trauma and surgery contribute to CVT?
They can lead to occlusion of the cerebral veins and sinuses.
What is the risk of congenital defects if the mother takes antiepileptic medication?
3-4%.
What constitutes Cushing's triad?
Widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular breathing.
What happens during generalized seizures?
They involve networks on both sides of the brain, and consciousness is lost immediately.
What is the pathogenesis of Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
Cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system, with anti-GM1 antibodies present in 25% of patients.
What is Progressive Muscular Atrophy characterized by?
LMN signs only, affecting distal muscles before proximal, and carries the best prognosis.
What visual symptoms may occur during occipital lobe seizures?
Floaters and flashes.
What is the first-line treatment for focal seizures?
Lamotrigine or levetiracetam.
What is Miller Fisher syndrome?
A variant of Guillain-Barré syndrome associated with ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.
What chronic conditions can result from chronic hypoxia?
Polycythaemia, pulmonary hypertension (PHT), and cor pulmonale.
Does Motor Neuron Disease affect external ocular muscles?
No, it doesn't affect external ocular muscles.
What is the role of thymectomy in myasthenia gravis?
Considered in patients with thymic hyperplasia or thymoma.
What are common presentations of sagittal sinus thrombosis?
Seizures and hemiplegia.
What are the types of epilepsy?
Generalized, complex partial, partial, and focal.
How do tension headaches typically present in terms of location?
Symptoms tend to be bilateral.
What advice is given to women of childbearing age regarding sodium valproate treatment?
They should not start treatment without specialist neurological or psychiatric advice.
What characterizes epilepsy?
Recurrent seizures.
What can be administered in the prehospital setting for status epilepticus?
PR diazepam or buccal midazolam.
What symptoms are associated with cavernous sinus thrombosis?
Periorbital oedema and ophthalmoplegia.
When is cardiac pacing indicated for reflex syncope?
Only if there is evidence of severe cardioinhibitory response or recurrent episodes despite optimal medical therapy.
What complications arise from occlusion of cerebral veins and sinuses?
Cerebral ischaemia, oedema, haemorrhage, and raised intracranial pressure.
What percentage of patients with temporal arteritis experience headaches?
85%.
What is temporal arteritis?
An inflammation of the blood vessels that can cause headaches and vision problems.
How long do seizures typically last in the temporal lobe?
Around one minute.
What should be done if a CT head is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset?
New guidelines suggest not doing a lumbar puncture and considering an alternative diagnosis.
What are the supportive management strategies for confirmed aneurysmal SAH?
Bed rest, analgesia, venous thromboembolism prophylaxis, and discontinuation of antithrombotics.
What are some conservative management measures for temporomandibular joint dysfunction?
Resting the jaw, adhering to a soft diet, physiotherapy, avoiding wide yawning and loud singing, and using heat or cold packs.
What are the initial symptoms of Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
Back and leg pain.
What is the acute treatment for cluster headaches recommended by NICE?
100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan.
What cranial nerve symptoms can occur in Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
Diplopia and bilateral facial nerve palsy.
What is a focal to bilateral seizure?
A seizure that starts on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes.
What is a significant interaction concern with sodium valproate?
It is a P450 enzyme inhibitor and interacts with warfarin.
What symptoms are observed during a collapse from cardiac syncope?
Pallor, abrupt onset, and unlikely seizure activity.
What sign is associated with sagittal sinus thrombosis on venography?
'Empty delta sign'.
What may trigger tension headaches?
Stress.
What sensory symptoms might a stroke patient experience?
Sensory disturbance, including numbness or tingling.
What type of contraception should women who previously took the oral contraceptive pill consider after CVT?
Non-oestrogen methods, such as the progesterone-only pill.
What defines chronic tension-type headache?
Occurs 15 or more days per month.
What is microvascular decompression in the context of trigeminal neuralgia?
A surgical procedure to remove or relocate blood vessels that are in contact with the trigeminal root.
What is the second-line treatment if first-line measures are not effective?
Non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine, and consider adding a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
What is the risk of congenital defects in newborns born to non-epileptic mothers?
1-2%.
What are the key features of headaches caused by raised intracranial pressure?
Headache, vomiting, reduced levels of consciousness, papilloedema, and Cushing's triad.
What additional treatment may help reduce migraine frequency and intensity?
Riboflavin (400 mg once a day).
What is the first-line treatment for myoclonic seizures in males?
Sodium valproate.
What does xanthochromia indicate in the context of SAH?
It helps to distinguish true SAH from a 'traumatic tap' and indicates red blood cell breakdown.
What sensory symptoms are associated with parietal lobe seizures?
Paraesthesia.
What may need to be increased in pregnancy for Lamotrigine?
The dose of Lamotrigine.
What is vasospasm in the context of SAH?
Delayed cerebral ischaemia typically occurring 7-14 days after onset.
How is hydrocephalus temporarily treated in SAH patients?
With an external ventricular drain or a long-term ventriculoperitoneal shunt.
What is a characteristic finding in lumbar puncture for Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
Rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation).
What antibodies are associated with Miller Fisher syndrome?
Anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases.
What investigations are recommended for patients with syncope?
ECG, blood tests for dyselectrolytaemias, and imaging like TTE.
What type of arteries does temporal arteritis affect?
Medium and large-sized arteries.
What is a 'classic' migraine attack precipitated by?
An aura.
What is Motor Neuron Disease (MND)?
A progressive neurological condition of unknown cause that can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs.
What are the two main types of seizures in epilepsy?
Focal seizures and generalized seizures.
What should women thinking about becoming pregnant take to minimize the risk of neural tube defects?
Folic acid 5mg per day.
What sensations might patients experience during a temporal lobe seizure?
Déjà vu, jamais vu, and less commonly, auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations.
What is the first-line drug treatment for females with generalized tonic-clonic seizures?
Lamotrigine or levetiracetam.
What medication may be given to prevent gastric ulcers in patients with temporal arteritis?
PPI (Proton Pump Inhibitors).
What is the role of oral nimodipine in managing aneurysmal SAH?
To prevent vasospasm which can lead to subsequent ischaemic damage after the bleed.
What are the three key elements of treatment for cerebral venous thrombosis?
Acute antithrombotic therapy, acute symptom management, and long-term management.
What are tonic-clonic seizures characterized by?
Stiffening (tonic) and jerking (clonic) of limbs, with common post-ictal confusion.
What is the investigation of choice for cluster headaches?
MRI with gadolinium contrast.
Which drugs may exacerbate myasthenia gravis?
Procainamide, quinidine, phenytoin, penicillamine, certain antibiotics (gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines), beta-blockers, and lithium.
What investigations are typically done after a patient's first seizure?
An electroencephalogram (EEG) and neuroimaging, usually an MRI.
What is the most common presentation of ALS?
Asymmetric limb weakness.
What are important predictive factors in SAH?
Age, amount of blood visible on CT head, and conscious level on admission.
What symptoms may occur before a collapse in cardiac syncope?
Lightheadedness, palpitations, chest pain, and shortness of breath.
When do patients with typical features of syncope not require further investigations?
If they have no postural drop and a normal ECG.
What accounts for around 85% of spontaneous SAH cases?
Intracranial aneurysms (saccular 'berry' aneurysms).
What are typical features of a visual aura?
They are progressive and last 5 - 60 minutes, including transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma.
What are typical features of temporal lobe seizures?
May occur with or without impairment of consciousness; often includes an aura with rising epigastric sensation and psychic phenomena.
What are temporomandibular joint disorders (TMD)?
A collection of clinical problems involving the masticatory musculature, the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), and associated structures.
What are some common causes of raised intracranial pressure?
Traumatic head injuries, tumours, meningitis, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, hypercapnia, and infection.
What should be done if there is no response within 45 minutes of onset?
Induction of general anaesthesia or phenobarbital may be necessary.
What is a common risk factor for thrombus development in CVT?
Hypercoagulable states.
What infections can trigger Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
Classically Campylobacter jejuni, but also mycoplasma, EBV, HIV, CMV, and Hepatitis A.
What are common symptoms of cluster headaches?
Redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and severe, sharp pain around one eye.
What is sometimes given to patients with temporal arteritis, despite weak evidence?
Low-dose aspirin.
What is the cut-off pressure for determining the need for treatment in ICP monitoring?
20 mmHg.
What is the role of anticonvulsants in the management of CVT?
To treat seizures and provide prophylaxis against seizures in high-risk patients.
What treatments are often used for infection and inflammation in CVT patients?
Antibiotic treatment for infection and glucocorticoid therapy for inflammatory disorders.
What is cardiac syncope?
A transient loss of consciousness due to inadequate cardiac output leading to cerebral hypoperfusion.
What is the association of thymomas with myasthenia gravis?
Thymomas are found in 15% of cases.
What should be done if PaCO2 increases by >1.5 kPa during management?
Consider non-invasive ventilation (NIV) or a respiratory stimulant such as doxapram.
What are the types of brain trauma?
Concussion, mild to severe brain injury, subdural and epidural hemorrhage.
What is a key advantage of levetiracetam in the management of status epilepticus?
It may be quicker to administer and have fewer adverse effects than alternatives.
What is a common examination finding in temporal arteritis?
Thickened, tender temporal artery.
What are some symptoms of temporomandibular joint dysfunction?
Pain in the jaw, face, and ear; difficulty in opening and closing the mouth; clicking or popping sounds; a sense of the jaw being 'stuck' or 'locked'.
What gene is responsible for familial cases of Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
The gene lies on chromosome 21 and codes for superoxide dismutase.
What are the symptoms of frontal lobe seizures?
Head/limb movements, post-ictal weakness, and Jacksonian march posturing.
Which antiepileptic is often considered the least teratogenic?
Carbamazepine.
How should raised intracranial pressure be managed in CVT patients?
By elevating the bed, administering osmotic therapy, hyperventilating in an intensive care setting, and possibly emergency decompressive surgery.
What is myasthenia gravis?
An autoimmune disorder resulting in the production of antibodies against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.
What drugs can induce orthostatic syncope?
Diuretics, alcohol, and vasodilators.
What is the aim of controlled hyperventilation in managing raised ICP?
To reduce pCO2, leading to vasoconstriction of cerebral arteries and reduced ICP.
What are some causes of cardiac syncope?
Arrhythmias, structural issues like aortic stenosis, and pulmonary embolism.
What is a key diagnostic criterion for postural blood pressure readings?
A symptomatic fall in systolic BP > 20 mmHg or diastolic BP > 10 mmHg.
What should be done if a D-dimer test is negative but symptoms suggest CVT?
A negative D-dimer cannot exclude CVT if patients have suggestive symptoms.
What should be offered to girls under 10 years who are unlikely to need treatment later?
Sodium valproate as first-line.
What are common automatisms observed during temporal lobe seizures?
Lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
How can antiepileptics affect other medications?
They can induce/inhibit the P450 system, resulting in varied metabolism of other medications.
What is orthostatic syncope?
Syncope resulting from a postural decrease in blood pressure.
What types of medications may be used to manage temporomandibular joint dysfunction?
Analgesics, muscle relaxants, and anti-inflammatory drugs.
What defines atonic seizures?
Sudden loss of muscle tone, causing the patient to fall, while consciousness is retained.
What are absence seizures?
Brief pauses for less than 10 seconds.
What is a common cause of hyponatraemia in SAH patients?
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH).
What are some common symptoms of myasthenia gravis?
Ptosis, diplopia, dysphagia, respiratory muscle weakness, and proximal muscle weakness.
What investigations are used to diagnose type 2 respiratory failure?
Arterial blood gas analysis, pulse oximetry, simple spirometry, and electrocardiogram.
What are primary causes of autonomic failure leading to orthostatic syncope?
Parkinson's disease and Lewy body dementia.
What are examples of secondary autonomic failure?
Diabetic neuropathy, uraemia, and amyloidosis.
What defines type 2 respiratory failure?
PaO2 < 8 kPa and PaCO2 > 6 kPa.
What are the typical features of MND?
A mixture of lower motor neuron and upper motor neuron signs, wasting of small hand muscles, fasciculations, and absence of sensory signs/symptoms.
What are the lower motor neuron signs?
Hypotonia, hyporeflexia, marked atrophy, and fasciculations.
What is the initial management for type 2 respiratory failure?
Controlled oxygen therapy aiming for 88-92% oxygen saturation and PaO2 > 8 kPa.
What type of respiratory failure can myasthenia gravis cause?
Type 2 respiratory failure due to alveolar hypoventilation.
What is the first-line treatment for absence seizures?
Ethosuximide.
What is the key feature of myasthenia gravis?
Muscle fatigability, where muscles become progressively weaker during activity and improve after rest.
What signs may indicate respiratory failure?
Cyanosis, reduced oxygen saturation, and tachycardia.
What is a common management strategy for myasthenic crisis?
Plasmapheresis and intravenous immunoglobulins.