p.54
Pelvic Floor Disorders
What is the treatment for sports hernia?
Physical therapy and rest.
p.21
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is chronic ankle/subtalar instability?
A condition characterized by recurrent ankle sprains and a feeling of instability.
p.34
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What does the impingement sign indicate?
It indicates pain in the shoulder when the arm is raised between 160-120 degrees.
p.31
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What types of pain should be assessed in a general examination?
Type of pain, weakness, and whether the patient hears crepitus.
p.17
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What are some recommended treatments for symptoms caused by pressure on the foot?
Shoe wear changes and rest.
What is essential for managing a child with fatty acid disease?
A specific routine for nutrition and a carefully scheduled physical activity.
p.43
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is chondrocalcinosis?
Calcification within the meniscus.
p.43
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is a Baker's cyst?
A popliteal cyst seen on ultrasound.
p.20
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What treatment can be used to visualize ligament tears in subtalar joint synovitis?
Arthroscopic examination.
p.43
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the symptoms of Osgood Schlatter disease?
Pain increased with activity, pulling on the tuberosity, and anterior knee swelling.
p.21
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the focus of physical therapy for ankle injuries?
Proprioception and kinesthetic awareness of body position and movement.
p.34
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What happens to the pain after reaching 120 degrees in shoulder elevation?
The pain goes away as the arm flattens out.
p.43
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the symptoms of an inflammatory response in the knee?
Pain, stiffness, swelling, and crepitus (no squeaking).
p.41
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the recommended treatments for a dislocated shoulder?
Rest, protection, and strengthening.
p.13
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
How is scoliosis defined?
By the direction of convexity.
p.21
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What might a mild Achilles tendon contracture indicate?
A shortening of the Achilles tendon that can affect ankle mobility.
p.4
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
What are Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles?
They are sensory receptors that detect changes in muscle tension and length, respectively.
p.38
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the treatment approach for Grade III AC joint injuries?
Controversial, ranging from conservative to surgical.
p.45
Foot and Ankle Injuries
How does Jersey Finger differ from Mallet Finger?
Jersey Finger is sort of the opposite of Mallet Finger.
p.20
Foot and Ankle Injuries
Which area of the foot is affected in subtalar joint synovitis?
Medial neck of the talus and superior aspect of the anterior calcaneus.
p.41
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is cuff tear arthropathy?
A condition where the humeral head rides high on the glenoid.
p.21
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is subtalar joint impingement?
A condition where the subtalar joint experiences pain due to mechanical blockage.
p.38
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the significance of a Grade III AC joint injury?
It involves a tear of all three ligaments.
p.4
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
What information do Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles relay?
They relay information about muscle tension and length to the CNS.
p.4
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
What physiologic changes occur during exercise?
Increased heart rate, enhanced blood flow to muscles, and elevated metabolic rate.
p.13
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What does the term 'Cobb angle' refer to?
A measurement used to quantify the degree of spinal curvature.
p.29
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the treatment options for the woman's condition?
Orthotics, anti-inflammatory medications, and possibly surgical decompression for persistent symptoms after 3-6 months.
p.58
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What condition is characterized by repetitive overload tendinopathy of the Gluteus Medius and Minimus?
Greater trochanteric pain syndrome.
p.41
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is a sign of avascular necrosis in the shoulder?
Flattening of the humeral head.
p.19
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is posterior tibial tendon dysfunction?
A progressive collapsing foot deformity due to tendon inflammation or tearing.
p.21
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is an inversion sprain?
An injury that occurs when the ankle rolls inward, often leading to ligament damage.
p.38
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is unique about a Grade IV AC joint injury?
The clavicle moves posteriorly, which is very rare.
p.34
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What conditions can cause the impingement sign?
Inflammation of the bursa or tendon.
p.29
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What diagnostic tool may confirm the diagnosis?
Nerve conduction studies showing delayed nerve conduction.
p.20
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What are common symptoms of subtalar joint synovitis?
Puffiness, swelling, and a pronated foot with calcaneal valgus.
p.19
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is Haglund’s deformity?
Inflammation at the Achilles tendon insertion leading to calcification.
p.6
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscle Disorders
How is Myasthenia Gravis (MG) treated?
With Ach inhibition to increase Ach levels, chronic immunosuppressive therapies, rapid short-acting immunomodulating treatments, and thymectomy.
p.52
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What does the term spondylosis refer to?
A general term for degenerative spine changes.
p.50
Chronic Pain Management
What imaging is used for AAA diagnosis?
Ultrasound (US) or bowel CT.
p.38
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What characterizes Grade I AC joint injury?
Just injury to the AC joint itself with tenderness and swelling.
p.9
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscle Disorders
What can cause channelopathies?
They can be genetic or acquired.
p.43
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the first line of treatment for knee inflammation?
Non-surgical options unless everything else fails, such as knee replacement.
p.45
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the typical treatment for Jersey Finger?
Reinsertion of the tendon using a dorsal button.
p.58
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the most common cause of lateral hip pain in adults?
Greater trochanteric pain syndrome.
p.2
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What are the types of hand malformations mentioned?
Syndactyly, macrodactyly, and polydactyly.
p.6
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy
What is the mode of inheritance for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
X-linked recessive, specifically due to mutations in the dystrophin gene located at Xp21.
p.6
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy
What is the gross appearance of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Progressive muscle weakness starting in the pelvic girdle, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, and a waddling gait.
p.1
Development of the Musculoskeletal System
When do the upper and lower limb buds form during gestation?
Between Day 24-26 (4th week of gestation).
p.38
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What happens in a Grade II AC joint injury?
The clavicle pulls away, creating more space, and a tear starts.
p.21
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What type of pain is associated with nerve injury in the ankle?
Dull achy pain on the lateral aspect.
p.31
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
How does shoulder pain typically present?
It radiates from the glenohumeral joint down to the insertion of the deltoid on the humeral shaft.
p.30
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the three ligaments associated with the shoulder?
Coracoacromial, coracoclavicular, and capsule.
p.30
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What type of tissue is the glenoid labrum made of?
Fibrocartilaginous tissue.
p.23
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What sensations might a person experience in the sole of the foot due to tibial nerve compression?
Aching, burning, numbness, and tingling.
p.17
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is a Lisfranc injury?
A traumatic disruption between the medial cuneiform and the base of the second metatarsal at the tarsal metatarsal junction.
p.38
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What characterizes a Grade VI AC joint injury?
It results from a huge traumatic event and is rare.
p.29
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What symptoms does the 50-year-old woman present with?
Burning pain and numbness along the inside of her ankle and the bottom of her foot, worsening throughout the day.
p.45
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What causes Jersey Finger?
Forced extension of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint.
p.2
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What is Phocomelia?
A condition characterized by missing or underdeveloped bones and severely shortened limbs.
p.43
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What causes a Baker's cyst?
It comes from something inside the knee, with a small opening in the knee joint during flexion.
p.17
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What symptoms can arise from pressure on the medial structures of the foot?
Pain, numbness, and tingling in the sole and toes.
p.21
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What causes lateral ankle pain?
Repetitive stretching of the ankle.
p.4
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
How does the CNS respond to information from Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles?
It adjusts muscle activity to prevent injury and maintain posture.
p.9
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscle Disorders
What is the most common form of cardiac channelopathy?
Congenital long QT syndrome.
p.31
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
How does neck pain typically present?
The patient grabs between the neck and the AC joint.
p.13
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is dextroscoliosis?
Right convexity of the spine.
p.56
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What is slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)?
Disruption of the growth plate.
p.60
Chronic Pain Management
What is Duloxetine used for?
Diabetic neuropathic pain and pain after shingles.
p.56
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What characterizes Legg Calve Perthes Disease?
The leg cannot perfuse properly.
p.39
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is Luxation erecta?
A condition where the arm is hyperabducted and fixed overhead, with the humeral head displaced inferiorly.
p.49
Lumbar and Thoracic Disorders
What factors contribute to the etiology of lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders?
Age, injury, overuse, and genetic predisposition.
p.32
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What position should the patient be in for palpation and ROM assessment?
Supine, to lock the scapula against the thorax.
p.21
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is anterolateral impingement?
A condition affecting the front and side of the ankle, often causing pain and instability.
p.21
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What tests are used to assess ankle stability?
Drawer test and varus test.
p.21
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What nerves are commonly injured in lateral ankle pain?
Superficial peroneal or sural nerve.
p.38
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What does a Grade V AC joint injury indicate?
A tint of skin where the clavicle is pushing through, which is rare.
p.9
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscle Disorders
What are channelopathies?
Disorders caused by ion channel issues, specifically K, Ca, and Na channels.
p.45
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is Jersey Finger?
A trauma flexor tendon avulsion of the FDP from its insertion at the distal phalanx, often caused by yanking on a jersey.
p.38
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What diagnostic method is used for AC joint injuries?
X-ray to see how much the clavicle has moved away.
p.29
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What additional sensation does the woman report?
Tingling sensations that occasionally radiate into the toes.
p.43
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What treatments are recommended for knee inflammation?
Pain medications, hyaluronic acid, physical therapy, weight loss, and low-impact exercise.
p.13
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is levoscoliosis?
Left convexity of the spine.
p.43
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
How is chondrocalcinosis diagnosed?
Synovial fluid analysis to look for crystals and x-ray to see calcium lineup on meniscus.
p.13
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
When is surgery indicated for scoliosis?
If the Cobb angle is greater than 45-50 degrees.
p.33
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What does the sulcus sign test for?
It checks if the humeral head slides out of the joint more than the other side, indicating instability.
p.33
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What does the drop arm test indicate?
It can indicate inflammation, although it is not as diagnostic.
p.14
Chronic Pain Management
What can chronic stress cause in relation to the ribs?
Rib fractures and trauma.
p.6
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy
What are the clinical features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Onset before age 5, wheelchair-bound by age 11, Gowers' sign, and dilated cardiomyopathy.
p.33
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is assessed during the supraspinatus test?
The patient pushes up against resistance.
p.52
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
How is spondylolisthesis graded?
It is graded from 1 to 5.
p.1
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What factors can disrupt limb development leading to Amelia?
Disrupted apical ectodermal ridge or fibroblast growth factor 8.
p.35
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the typical presentations of rotator cuff tears in young vs. older individuals?
Young person = traumatic event; Older person = wear and tear.
p.5
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscle Disorders
What is the mechanism of myasthenia gravis?
It is an autoimmune disease with antibodies against acetylcholine receptors, causing loss of receptors.
p.35
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is a key symptom of rotator cuff tears?
Pain does NOT go past the elbow.
p.31
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is a key differentiator between shoulder and neck pain?
Shoulder pain radiates down the arm, while neck pain is localized between the neck and AC joint.
p.41
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the characteristics of osteoarthritis in the glenohumeral joint?
Bone on bone appearance, loss of cartilage, and squeak noise with movement.
p.43
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is Osgood Schlatter disease?
A disorder of the tibial tuberosity occurring in adolescence.
p.2
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What mutation is associated with Achondroplasia?
Fibroblast growth receptor 3 mutation.
p.2
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What are the physical characteristics of Achondroplasia?
Shortened proximal limbs and a shortened face.
p.6
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy
What is the microscopic appearance of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Progressive loss of myofibers replaced by adipose tissue and increased connective tissue.
p.48
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What caused the sudden pain in the player's finger?
Grabbing an opponent’s jersey during a game.
p.23
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What areas of the foot are affected by symptoms of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
Sole of the foot, distal foot toes, and heel.
p.42
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the etiology of osteoarthritis?
Degenerative wear and tear leading to cartilage breakdown and bone-on-bone contact.
p.52
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is spondylolisthesis?
Anterior displacement of a vertebra on the one beneath it.
p.1
Development of the Musculoskeletal System
What is the significance of myoblasts during limb development?
They aggregate to form large muscle masses in each limb.
p.37
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is a common symptom of a biceps injury?
Biceps balled up by the elbow.
p.53
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is lumbar radiculopathy characterized by?
Dermatomal pain distribution.
p.42
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What should a comprehensive treatment plan for knee disorders include?
Pharmacologic interventions and rehabilitation strategies.
p.56
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What can result from the overload of the acetabular rim in adult hip dysplasia?
Secondary osteoarthritis (OA).
p.62
Chronic Pain Management
What are the components of the nervous system involved in pain processing?
The brain and spinal cord.
p.37
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What causes an AC joint separation?
Injury to the AC joint from a direct blow or fall, commonly seen in football players.
p.12
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What are the primary symptoms of the non-inflammatory disorder?
Back pain and spinal stiffness.
p.10
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What imaging technique has good sensitivity for metastatic breast cancer?
CT (Computed Tomography).
p.5
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscle Disorders
What is the historical use of Edrophonium in myasthenia gravis?
It was given to increase acetylcholine and used to diagnose myasthenia gravis.
p.22
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What movements aggravate peroneal tendon injuries?
Plantar flexion and inversion.
p.5
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscle Disorders
What is the role of Neostigmine in myasthenia gravis?
It increases acetylcholine and does not penetrate the CNS.
p.22
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What can happen if the superior peroneal retinaculum tears?
Tendons can become unstable and subluxate or dislocate.
p.18
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is a non-operative treatment option for foot conditions?
Ultrasound-guided injection.
p.64
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is the most common pattern of cervical spine instability in rheumatoid cervical spondylitis?
Atlantoaxial subluxation.
p.10
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What does MRI reveal in cases of osteomyelitis?
Marrow edema and soft tissue involvement.
p.36
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the two types of biceps tendonitis?
Impingement tendonitis and attritional tendinitis.
p.55
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What are some treatment options for sacroiliac joint dysfunction?
Injection, OMT, prolotherapy, radiofrequency.
p.52
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is the purpose of the toe heel walk test?
It is great for testing nerve function.
p.30
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the function of the glenoid labrum?
It deepens the glenoid cavity to help stabilize the shoulder.
p.19
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What are the grades of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction?
Grade 1 (single heel rise possible, no deformity), Grade 2 (cannot do single heel rise), Grade 3 (fixed subtalar joint).
p.30
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
How does arm motion relate to scapula movement?
With motion of the arm, there is movement of the scapula.
p.52
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is spondylolysis?
A defect in the pars interarticularis, usually at L5.
p.14
Chronic Pain Management
What are common symptoms of rib fractures?
Swelling, bruising, and difficulty breathing.
p.40
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is a reduction maneuver for a dislocated shoulder?
Pull down and the humeral head will pop back in.
p.42
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What happens to the joint space in osteoarthritis?
The joint space narrows, particularly on the medial side.
p.14
Chronic Pain Management
What is costochondritis?
Inflammation of the cartilage in the anterior chest wall.
p.62
Chronic Pain Management
What is the primary goal of Pain Neuroscience Education (PNE)?
To change a patient’s perception of pain by shifting the focus from structural damage to how the nervous system contributes to pain.
p.37
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What characterizes Frozen Shoulder?
Decreased tissue in the shoulder, preventing movement even passively.
p.14
Chronic Pain Management
What is slipping rib syndrome?
Pain in the lower chest or upper abdomen due to excessive rib motion.
p.14
Chronic Pain Management
What is the positive Hooking maneuver?
Placing fingers under the lower costal margin and pulling hands anteriorly; pain or clicking indicates a positive result.
p.7
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy
What is the role of dystrophin in muscle cells?
It helps maintain the structural integrity of muscle cells by connecting the cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix.
p.53
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
Can disc herniations heal on their own?
Yes, usually without surgery.
p.35
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are common treatments for rotator cuff tears?
Decrease inflammation with injections or pills, physical therapy, and open repair.
p.7
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy
What distinguishes Becker Muscular Dystrophy from Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
Becker Muscular Dystrophy has partial dystrophin deficiency, later onset (age 5-15 or adult), and lower progression compared to DMD.
p.60
Chronic Pain Management
When are opioids typically prescribed?
For moderate to severe pain (6-10 pain rating) when other medications are not effective.
p.36
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What indicates that a condition has been present for a while?
The rounded appearance of the area, similar to a stone in a river.
p.7
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy
At what age does Becker Muscular Dystrophy typically onset?
Between ages 5-15 or in adulthood.
p.35
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
When does calcific tendonitis become painful?
When calcium is started to be resorbed by the body.
p.28
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What injury does the 40-year-old construction worker have?
Superficial peroneal nerve injury.
p.25
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the recommended treatment for the first metatarsophalangeal joint injury?
Rest for 2 weeks and taping before returning to competition.
p.26
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the typical treatment for Haglund's Deformity?
Shoe modification, heel lifts, and anti-inflammatory medications.
p.27
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What imaging finding is noted in the 55-year-old woman's case?
MRI shows tendon degeneration or partial tear.
p.11
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What are some non-degenerative causes of cervical radiculopathy?
Infection, nerve root infarction, and tumors.
p.28
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What condition does the 60-year-old woman with a history of ankle fractures have?
Subtalar joint arthritis.
p.43
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the recommended treatment for Osgood Schlatter disease?
Decrease activity, implement a stretching program, use NSAIDs, and apply ice.
p.23
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What are common symptoms of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
Pain and paresthesia of the plantar foot.
p.19
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What makes diagnosing Anterolateral Impingement syndrome difficult?
Normal imaging is typical.
p.52
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What type of fracture is commonly associated with spondylolysis?
Fatigue fracture early in life.
p.23
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the initial treatment for tarsal tunnel syndrome?
Bracing and short leg cast.
Where does Prepatellar Bursitis occur?
Between the skin and the patella.
p.51
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What does PSA stand for in the context of prostate cancer?
Prostate-Specific Antigen.
p.1
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What is Amelia in the context of musculoskeletal malformations?
Complete absence of one or more limbs due to failure of inductive signaling factors.
p.37
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the treatment options for a biceps injury?
Physical therapy (PT), injections, NSAIDs, and surgery to fix the rotator cuff.
p.51
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What should be checked alongside dermatomes during a neurological examination?
Muscle strength and deep tendon reflexes.
p.60
Chronic Pain Management
What is the primary function of opioids?
To bind to cell membranes and affect pain transmission.
p.11
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is the typical management for cervical strain?
Conservative management including postural fixes, pillow position, stretching, cold therapy, and OMT.
p.24
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What conservative treatments are recommended for metatarsalgia?
Shoe modifications and pads in the area of tenderness.
p.11
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What should be assumed about trauma patients regarding cervical spine injuries?
All trauma patients have a cervical spine injury until proven otherwise.
p.24
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is Turf Toe?
A condition characterized by pain at the base of the big toe due to hyperextension.
p.10
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What changes should be looked for on an X-ray when evaluating osteomyelitis?
Lytic changes (bone eaten away with erosions).
p.49
Lumbar and Thoracic Disorders
How do lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders affect overall body function?
They can alter movement patterns and lead to compensatory mechanisms in the body.
p.36
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What happens to the humeral head during biceps tendonitis?
The humeral head moves underneath the tendon, which itself does not move.
p.55
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What does a positive Faber test indicate?
Pain localized to the SI joint.
What are the symptoms of Kearns-Sayre syndrome?
Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia and droopy eyelids.
p.36
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the diagnostic methods for biceps tendonitis?
Ecchymosis with rupture, X-ray, ultrasound, and MRI.
p.33
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the position used in the supraspinatus test?
The arm is 90 degrees abducted with the thumb down in an 'empty can' position.
p.2
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What is Prune belly syndrome?
A condition characterized by the absence of abdominal muscles.
p.48
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the main symptom of Jersey Finger in this case?
Inability to flex the distal phalanx.
What is the typical treatment approach for Prepatellar Bursitis?
Treatment is done outside the knee joint.
p.3
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
What is the definition of insertion in the context of muscles?
The bone that moves due to muscle contraction.
p.62
Chronic Pain Management
What does Pain Neuroscience Education (PNE) help patients understand?
The biological and neurological processes behind pain.
p.18
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What does the squeeze test help diagnose?
It is used for diagnosing conditions related to the foot, particularly involving nerve entrapment.
p.5
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscle Disorders
What are the clinical features of myasthenia gravis?
Progressive fatigable muscle weakness, ptosis, diplopia, dyspnea, dysphagia, and difficulty chewing.
p.7
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy
What are the treatment recommendations for managing muscular dystrophy?
Diet, calcium, vitamin D, speech-language pathology (SLP), and monitoring for pubertal tracking and adrenal crisis risk.
p.50
Chronic Pain Management
When is surgical intervention needed for AAA?
When the aneurysm is greater than 5 cm.
p.49
Lumbar and Thoracic Disorders
What are common musculoskeletal disorders affecting the lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip?
Conditions such as herniated discs, osteoarthritis, and sciatica.
p.60
Chronic Pain Management
What are the three types of opioids?
Naturally occurring, semi-synthetic, and synthetic.
p.55
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is sacroiliac joint dysfunction?
A degenerative condition of the sacroiliac joint resulting in lower back pain.
p.32
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What should be isolated during scapula assessment?
Other movements to determine if the issue is with the scapula or glenohumeral joint.
p.11
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What does cervical spondylosis refer to?
A non-specific term describing effects from degenerative changes in the spine.
p.28
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What symptoms does the construction worker experience?
Numbness and tingling along the outer lateral side of the lower leg and dorsum of the foot.
p.60
Chronic Pain Management
What is multimodal therapy?
Combining different types of medications, such as opioids and NSAIDs.
p.28
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What symptom does the tennis player report during activity?
A feeling of popping or snapping along the outside of the ankle.
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
What is the effectiveness of medical cannabis in pain management?
According to some doctors, it doesn't do much for pain.
p.22
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is a characteristic of subtalar joint arthritis?
Limited inversion and eversion compared to the unaffected side.
p.27
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What symptom is common among patients with subtalar joint synovitis or impingement?
Pain that worsens with inversion movements.
p.40
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the recommended X-ray views for shoulder assessment?
A/P, scapular Y (easiest view), or transthoracic view.
p.19
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is Anterolateral Impingement syndrome?
Impingement of the talus with inversion, often after an inversion ankle sprain.
p.57
Hip and Knee Disorders
What is femoral acetabular impingement?
A condition where the hip joint is not shaped normally, causing contact between the femoral head-neck junction and the acetabular rim.
p.40
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What structures are visualized in the scapular Y view?
Acromion, coracoid, and glenoid.
p.57
Hip and Knee Disorders
What is the C-sign in relation to femoral acetabular impingement?
A sign indicating hip pain, often described by patients as a C-shaped hand position over the hip.
p.23
Foot and Ankle Injuries
When is surgery considered for tarsal tunnel syndrome?
After 3-6 months of unsuccessful conservative treatment.
p.48
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What imaging confirmed the injury?
Imaging confirmed avulsion of the FDP tendon from the distal phalanx.
p.3
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
What does origin refer to in muscle anatomy?
The bone that does not move with muscle contraction.
p.37
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are some predisposing factors for Frozen Shoulder?
Immobility, diabetes, and thyroid issues.
When might surgery be needed for Prepatellar Bursitis?
If aspiration and steroids are not effective.
p.3
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
What characterizes Type Ia myofibers?
Slow twitch, red due to high myoglobin, primarily use aerobic respiration, suited for long-distance runners.
p.18
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is often required for treating Baxter’s nerve entrapment?
Surgery, often involving fusion.
p.3
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
What defines Type IIb myofibers?
Fast twitch, minimal myoglobin, rely on anaerobic respiration for rapid, powerful movements lasting less than a minute.
p.62
Chronic Pain Management
What does PNE shift the focus from in understanding pain?
From natural biology to neurobiology and neurophysiology.
p.7
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy
What is a common symptom of Becker Muscular Dystrophy?
Slow progressive muscle weakness and foot drop.
p.36
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the initial treatments for inflammation in tendon issues?
Ice and ultrasound to reduce inflammation and break apart calcium capsule.
p.24
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the toe abnormality condition that often accompanies metatarsalgia?
The specific toe abnormality is not mentioned, but it is often associated with conditions like hammertoe or bunions.
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
What is the role of yoga in pain management?
Yoga is used for managing low back pain.
p.12
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is the primary treatment for Ankylosing Spondylitis?
Non-operative, NSAIDs, OMT.
p.22
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is a common symptom of peroneal tendon injuries?
Chronic retromalleolar swelling.
p.25
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What symptoms does the 40-year-old long-distance runner present with?
Burning pain on the inner side of the sole, radiating to the big toe and second toe, worsened after long runs, accompanied by numbness.
p.11
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is cervical radiculopathy?
A condition characterized by a pinched nerve and nerve root pathology.
p.32
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What does increased pain during the Speed test indicate?
Bicipital tendinitis or a problem with the long head of the biceps.
p.27
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What activities worsen the pain for the soccer player with Anterolateral Impingement Syndrome?
Running and activities involving forced dorsiflexion and inversion.
p.22
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What condition involves the separation of a segment of subchondral bone and articular cartilage?
Osteochondritis dissecans.
What are channelopathies?
Disorders affecting potassium, calcium, and sodium channels, characterized by episodic weakness.
p.54
Pelvic Floor Disorders
How is osteitis pubis typically diagnosed?
Bone scan for early detection.
p.2
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What is Poland syndrome?
A condition characterized by the absence of pectoral muscles.
p.42
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are common musculoskeletal disorders affecting the knee?
Osteoarthritis and other conditions related to etiology and pathophysiology.
p.1
Development of the Musculoskeletal System
How do the limb buds rotate by Day 56?
The upper limb rotates laterally through 90 degrees, and the lower limb rotates medially.
p.48
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What tendon is involved in Jersey Finger?
Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon.
p.14
Chronic Pain Management
What is important for managing pain related to rib fractures?
Pain control, OMT (Osteopathic Manipulative Treatment), and rarely surgery.
p.51
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What physical examination finding may indicate prostate cancer metastasis?
Bony midline tenderness in the spine.
p.53
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
Which nerve root is typically compressed by a herniated disc?
The more inferior nerve root.
p.50
Chronic Pain Management
What are the signs of an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?
Pulsatile abdominal mass.
p.3
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
What is unique about Type IIa myofibers?
They are pink, can switch between aerobic and anaerobic respiration, and support about 30 minutes of activity.
p.37
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
Which ligaments are involved in an AC joint separation?
AC ligaments and coracoclavicular ligament.
p.53
Chronic Pain Management
What type of pain is associated with ankylosing spondylitis?
Dull back pain worse in the morning before age 40.
p.3
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
How are myofibers classified?
By how fast they contract and how quickly they regenerate ATP/energy.
p.62
Chronic Pain Management
What is one of the aims of educating patients through PNE?
To improve coping strategies for pain management.
p.53
Chronic Pain Management
What is the significance of HLA-B27 in ankylosing spondylitis?
It is sensitive but not specific.
p.18
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the Windlass test used for?
To rule out plantar fasciitis.
p.16
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is metatarsalgia?
Forefoot pain in the plantar surface of one or more of the lesser metatarsals, commonly affecting the 2nd and 3rd metatarsals.
p.64
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What distinguishes myelopathy from radiculopathy?
Myelopathy involves widespread and bilateral neurological deficits, while radiculopathy has more localized symptoms.
What characterizes Pompe disease?
Associated with hypotonic baby syndrome and requires a muscle biopsy for diagnosis (deficiency in GAA).
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
What is the purpose of platelet-rich plasma (PRP) in pain management?
PRP is used as a treatment option for various pain conditions.
p.25
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What does a positive Tinel's sign indicate in the context of medial plantar nerve entrapment?
Nerve compression or irritation in the tarsal tunnel.
What is the cause of muscle carnitine deficiency?
Deficiency in carnitine, with the transporter gene located on the long arm of chromosome 5 (SLC22A5).
p.49
Lumbar and Thoracic Disorders
What biomechanical implications arise from disorders of the lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip?
They can lead to altered gait, balance issues, and increased risk of injury.
p.28
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What findings are seen on X-rays for subtalar joint arthritis?
Joint space narrowing and osteophytes.
What is Leigh disease associated with?
Mutations in mitochondrial DNA or pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency, leading to poor suckling and vomiting.
p.64
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)?
A condition characterized by calcification or ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament.
p.46
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the symptoms of Lateral Epicondylitis?
Pain on the outer elbow and weak grip, especially when extending the wrist or supinating against resistance.
p.63
Chronic Pain Management
What are the different types of pain mentioned?
Chronic, acute, subacute, and perioperative pain.
p.33
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What does the subscapularis test involve?
The patient places their hand behind their back and lifts it away while resisting downward pressure.
p.57
Hip and Knee Disorders
What characterizes a pistol grip deformity?
An abnormal shape of the femoral head and neck junction resembling the grip of a pistol.
p.57
Hip and Knee Disorders
What can cause labral tears?
They can result from trauma or microtrauma.
p.56
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What is adult hip dysplasia?
Abnormal development of the hip joint resulting in a shallow acetabulum with lack of anterior and lateral coverage.
p.42
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
Why is it important to analyze the biomechanical implications of knee disorders?
To assess how these disorders affect overall body function and movement patterns.
p.3
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
What are the three types of myofibers?
Type Ia, Type IIa, and Type IIb.
p.26
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the primary symptom of Baxter's nerve entrapment?
Chronic heel pain that is worse in the morning and after prolonged standing.
p.14
Chronic Pain Management
What should be ruled out when diagnosing costochondritis?
Other serious conditions.
p.62
Chronic Pain Management
What are the psychological and environmental factors considered in PNE?
They influence how pain is perceived and managed.
p.7
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy
How is Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy diagnosed?
By increased creatine kinase (CK) and aldose levels; genetic testing confirms the diagnosis.
p.11
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What are the symptoms of a cervical strain?
Pain and stiffness with neck movement, often due to neck muscle strain.
p.35
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is a typical presentation of calcific tendonitis?
Spot right over supraspinatus; can be pain-free or cause mild to moderate discomfort.
p.28
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the diagnosis for the 22-year-old basketball player with recurrent ankle inversion sprains?
Chronic ankle instability.
p.60
Chronic Pain Management
What is the maximum morphine milligram equivalent (MME) recommended per day?
90 mg/day, with a recommendation to keep it under 50 mg/day.
What are the main categories of metabolic myopathies?
Disorders of glycogen metabolism, lipid metabolism, mitochondrial diseases, and channelopathies.
p.49
Lumbar and Thoracic Disorders
What imaging techniques are commonly used for diagnosing lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders?
X-rays, MRI, and CT scans.
p.24
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What causes Turf Toe?
Hyperextension of the big toe during activities like football.
p.10
Musculoskeletal Malformations
What does a bone scan indicate in the context of osteomyelitis?
High sensitivity but low specificity for bone turnover.
p.16
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What imaging is used for diagnosing metatarsalgia?
Weight bearing AP and lateral X-ray.
p.64
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is the most common type of fracture in the thoracic spine?
Vertebral compression fracture.
p.22
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What conservative treatments are recommended for peroneal tendon injuries?
Short leg cast and activity modification.
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
What are conventional methods for managing low back pain?
Physical therapy, weight loss, pharmacotherapy, and psychotherapy.
p.28
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the diagnosis for the 16-year-old male basketball player with intermittent ankle pain?
Osteochondritis dissecans.
p.16
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What symptoms are associated with medial plantar nerve entrapment?
Pain of the heel and medial plantar arch.
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
What medications are commonly used to treat nociceptive pain?
NSAIDs, acetaminophen, and opioids.
p.47
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What imaging can confirm a scaphoid fracture?
MRI or CT scan, especially if initial X-rays are negative.
p.1
Development of the Musculoskeletal System
What happens to the limb buds by the 6th week of gestation?
The limbs have extended and lie in the coronal plane.
p.30
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What conditions can be assessed using the shrugging motion?
Complete rotator cuff tear and glenohumeral arthritis.
p.42
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are osteophytes?
Bone spurs that develop in response to joint degeneration.
p.42
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What diagnostic evaluations are important for knee disorders?
Physical examinations and imaging techniques.
p.14
Chronic Pain Management
How is costochondritis characterized?
It is benign and self-limiting.
p.5
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscle Disorders
What are the associated abnormalities of myasthenia gravis?
Thymic hyperplasia (65%) and thymoma (15%).
p.62
Chronic Pain Management
What does PNE aim to reduce in patients?
Fear and misconceptions about pain.
p.26
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What does the dorsiflexion of the big toe indicate in Baxter's nerve entrapment?
Pain at the medial aspect of the heel and arch of the foot.
p.35
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is calcific tendonitis?
Calcified deposits within the rotator cuff.
p.39
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the two types of causes for Glenohumeral dislocations?
Traumatic and atraumatic.
p.12
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is Ankylosing Spondylitis classified as?
Seronegative autoimmune spondyloarthropathy.
p.62
Chronic Pain Management
What does PNE consider in addition to biological factors?
Psychological and social correlates of pain.
p.22
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What should be performed to rule out proximal nerve lesions in the lower extremity?
A full lower extremity neuro exam.
p.18
Foot and Ankle Injuries
How is a positive Windlass test indicated?
By pain at the medial aspect of the heel or along the arch of the foot during dorsiflexion of the big toe.
p.16
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What sensation do individuals with metatarsalgia often report?
It feels like walking on pebbles.
p.36
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What causes irritation in biceps tendonitis?
The synovium coming out of the joint and getting irritated.
What symptoms are associated with McArdle disease?
Exercise-induced cramps and myoglobinuria.
p.22
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What imaging techniques are used for diagnosing peroneal tendon injuries?
MRI and dynamic ultrasonography.
p.60
Chronic Pain Management
What is radicular pain?
Pain that radiates from the back and hip into the legs through the spine.
p.25
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What are the physical exam findings for a Lisfranc injury?
Swelling and bruising across the midfoot, pain on palpation of the tarsometatarsal joints, and pain elicited by midfoot compression.
p.22
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What are common symptoms of osteochondritis dissecans?
Locking of the joint, history of lingering pain, and bony tenderness over the medial or lateral talar dome.
p.55
Chronic Pain Management
What are some treatment options for hip osteoarthritis?
Physical therapy, walking aids, weight management, and surgery for joint preservation in young patients.
p.47
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the primary treatment for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Reducing nerve inflammation with gabapentin or surgical decompression in severe cases.
p.47
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the treatment for Mallet Finger?
Splinting the DIP joint in extension for several weeks.
p.63
Chronic Pain Management
What are fear avoidance beliefs?
Beliefs that predict how individuals will manage pain and impact their recovery.
p.54
Pelvic Floor Disorders
What is a common symptom of osteitis pubis?
Pain with rotation of the hip.
p.50
Chronic Pain Management
What is Cauda Equina syndrome?
A rare medical emergency involving nerve root compression resulting in low back pain and urinary dysfunction.
p.12
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What type of disorder is characterized by calcification and ossification of spinal ligaments?
Non-inflammatory disorder.
p.18
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What does an AP X-ray show in relation to metatarsal injuries?
Increased space between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal.
p.62
Chronic Pain Management
What limitations does the biomedical model have in understanding pain?
It is limited in defining complex pain and the immune system's role.
p.12
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is a key diagnostic feature of the non-inflammatory disorder?
Preservation of the disc joint and no facet joint ankylosis.
p.18
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What causes tenderness just distal to the medial calcaneal tuberosity?
Compression of the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve (Baxter’s nerve).
p.26
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What physical examination finding is associated with Haglund's Deformity?
Tenderness over the posterior heel and a prominent bony exostosis.
p.25
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is the diagnosis for the tenderness and swelling over the first metatarsophalangeal joint?
Possible sprain or strain with a small avulsion fracture.
p.26
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What do X-rays show in a patient with Haglund's Deformity?
Calcaneal prominence and possible retrocalcaneal bursitis.
p.32
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What neurological aspects should be considered during the examination?
Assessment of nerves and potential dislocations.
p.11
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What can cervical degenerative disease lead to?
It can lead to cervical radiculopathy due to degeneration or dehydration of disc material.
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
What role does stem cell therapy play in pain management?
Stem cell therapy is explored as a treatment for pain.
p.25
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What imaging findings are associated with medial plantar nerve entrapment?
MRI shows nerve swelling or compression.
p.55
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What does a positive Gaenslen’s test indicate?
Pain in the right SI joint (if testing the right lower extremity).
p.36
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What occurs in attritional tendinitis?
Edema, swelling, and possible complete rupture.
p.25
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What imaging is needed to confirm a Lisfranc injury?
CT or MRI may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
p.47
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What signs are positive in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Phalen’s sign, Tinel’s sign, and flick sign.
p.63
Chronic Pain Management
What type of pain is associated with the peripheral nervous system?
Peripheral neuropathic pain.
p.54
Pelvic Floor Disorders
What is a key symptom of sports hernia?
Tenderness over the pubic tubercle.
p.37
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the primary treatment for Frozen Shoulder?
Keep the shoulder moving with intensive physical therapy, possibly using anesthesia injections first.
p.26
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is a notable sign during the examination for Baxter's nerve entrapment?
Positive Tinel's sign over the area where Baxter’s nerve passes.
p.32
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What should be assessed during the initial impression of a shoulder examination?
Look for changes in all areas, including the upper back, active and passive motion, range of motion (ROM), posture, and any scars or lumps.
p.26
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What are the treatment options for Baxter's nerve entrapment?
Physical therapy, weight loss, and sometimes corticosteroid injections.
p.3
Muscle Fiber Types and Physiology
What do all types of myofibers have in common?
Each has thick and thin filaments.
p.11
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What type of injury is whiplash associated with?
Acceleration/deceleration injury, commonly from motor vehicle accidents.
p.28
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What type of physical therapy is recommended for the basketball player?
Strengthening the surrounding muscles.
p.55
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
Where is the pain typically located in sacroiliac joint dysfunction?
Just inferior to the PSIS.
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
How does tai chi help in pain management?
Tai chi is beneficial for fibromyalgia.
p.24
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What symptoms does the football player experience with Turf Toe?
Sudden onset of pain, swelling, and pain at the base of the first toe, aggravated by toe-off.
p.32
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
Describe the Speed test procedure.
Extend the arm forward with the shoulder flexed to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended, and palm facing up. Apply downward resistance to the wrist or forearm.
p.27
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What condition is diagnosed in the 28-year-old soccer player with chronic ankle pain?
Anterolateral Impingement Syndrome.
p.16
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is turf toe?
Pain at the base of the 1st toe due to jamming or hyperextension of the hallux.
p.16
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What are the grades of turf toe injury?
Grade 1 (still compete), Grade 2 (rest 2 weeks), Grade 3 (3-4 months, big tear).
p.27
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What condition is diagnosed in the 35-year-old hiker with pain in the outer side of the foot?
Chronic Ankle/Subtalar Instability.
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
What is the purpose of using contrast in MRI?
To identify tumors, infections, and scar tissue.
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
What is a bone scan used for?
To detect cancers, bone infections, and metastatic disease.
p.46
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is a common treatment for Medial Epicondylitis?
Rest, physical therapy, and activity modification.
p.46
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is a common treatment for Cubital Tunnel Syndrome?
Gabapentin for neuropathic pain, corticosteroid injections, and possible surgical nerve release.
p.63
Chronic Pain Management
What is nociplastic pain?
Pain resulting from permanent changes in the central nervous system, where non-painful stimuli become painful.
p.59
Chronic Pain Management
What are some conventional medications used to treat chronic pain?
Anti-inflammatory medications and anti-convulsant medications.
p.5
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscle Disorders
Which medications should be avoided in patients with myasthenia gravis?
Any drug with 'cin' at the end (like Telithromycin) and Aminoglycosides.
p.24
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What physical examination findings are associated with metatarsalgia?
Tenderness over the area, pain on palpation, and plantar calluses.
p.53
Chronic Pain Management
What does an X-ray show in a patient with ankylosing spondylitis?
Bamboo spine and fusion on SI joints.
p.18
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What does the Tinel test assess?
It assesses for nerve entrapment, particularly in the foot.
p.39
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are common physical exam findings in Glenohumeral dislocation?
Pain, muscle spasms, arm held in abducted and external rotation.
p.49
Lumbar and Thoracic Disorders
What is the importance of diagnostic evaluations for lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders?
They help in accurately diagnosing conditions through physical examinations and imaging techniques.
p.36
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the purpose of surgery in tendonitis treatment?
To debride the affected area.
What is Type Ia glycogen storage disease?
A deficiency in glucose-6-phosphatase.
p.60
Chronic Pain Management
What is the purpose of universal precautions in opioid prescribing?
To ensure psych assessment, informed consent, and regular assessment of the 4 A's.
p.12
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is Scheuermann’s kyphosis?
A rigid form of spinal kyphosis caused by anterior wedging greater than 5 degrees across 3 consecutive vertebrae.
p.60
Chronic Pain Management
What is the most common injection used to reduce inflammation?
Interlaminar epidural steroid injection.
p.64
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What are the typical symptoms of a vertebral compression fracture?
Well localized pain to midline spine, often referring in a unilateral or bilateral pattern in the flank.
p.55
Chronic Pain Management
What is hip osteoarthritis?
A degenerative disease of the hip joint causing progressive loss of articular cartilage.
p.27
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What treatments are typically involved for the hiker with Chronic Ankle/Subtalar Instability?
NSAIDs, physical therapy, and possibly orthotics.
p.47
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What condition is characterized by pain over the radial side of the wrist, especially during thumb movement?
DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis.
p.47
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What symptoms are associated with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Numbness and tingling in the first three fingers, especially at night.
p.47
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the treatment for Trigger Finger?
Splinting, MCP injection, and surgical release if necessary.
p.63
Chronic Pain Management
What does self-determination theory emphasize?
The importance of an internal locus of control and the need to change behavior.
p.54
Pelvic Floor Disorders
What is a sports hernia?
An abdominal muscle injury close to the groin, not a true hernia.
p.59
Chronic Pain Management
What are the two types of nociceptive pain?
Somatic (e.g., broken bone) and visceral (e.g., appendicitis).
p.64
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What is cervical stenosis/myelopathy?
Injury to the spinal cord due to severe compression.
p.60
Chronic Pain Management
What are the side effects of opioids?
Fatigue, dry mouth, and male hypogonadism.
p.27
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What condition is diagnosed in the 55-year-old woman with ankle pain and instability?
Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction.
p.49
Lumbar and Thoracic Disorders
What components should be included in a comprehensive treatment plan for lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders?
Pharmacologic interventions and rehabilitation strategies.
p.27
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What are the symptoms of the 55-year-old woman with posterior tibial tendon dysfunction?
Gradually worsening pain along the inside of the ankle, feeling of instability, flattened arch, and inability to perform a single heel rise.
p.49
Lumbar and Thoracic Disorders
What role does rehabilitation play in managing lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders?
It aids in recovery, improves mobility, and strengthens supporting muscles.
p.27
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What treatment may be necessary for the soccer player if conservative treatments fail?
Arthroscopic debridement.
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
What is the gold standard for spinal imaging?
MRI, which also assesses soft tissue, blood vessels, and bone edema.
p.55
Chronic Pain Management
What are common symptoms of hip osteoarthritis?
Function limiting hip pain and leg length discrepancy.
p.46
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the Popeye sign associated with?
A distal biceps tendon tear.
p.59
Chronic Pain Management
Which anti-convulsant medications are most commonly used off-label for chronic pain?
Gabapentin and Pregabalin.
p.64
Cervical and Thoracic Disorders
What are some treatment options for acute vertebral fractures?
Pain control, activity modification, physical therapy, vertebroplasty, and kyphoplasty.
p.63
Chronic Pain Management
What is a common treatment for chronic back pain?
OMT (Osteopathic Manipulative Treatment) targeting peripheral biochemical processes.
p.54
Pelvic Floor Disorders
What is osteitis pubis?
An inflammatory condition of the pubic symphysis.
p.59
Chronic Pain Management
Define tolerance in the context of pain management.
Adaptation to exposure of a drug that results in a diminution of drug effect.
p.16
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What can cause medial plantar nerve entrapment?
Compression of the medial plantar nerve, possibly due to a ganglion cyst.
p.16
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What imaging techniques are useful for diagnosing medial plantar nerve entrapment?
Weight bearing X-ray, ultrasound (US), and possibly MRI.
p.46
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the symptoms of Medial Epicondylitis?
Pain on the inner elbow and weakness with wrist flexion, exacerbated by gripping or lifting.
p.46
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the symptoms of Cubital Tunnel Syndrome?
Numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th fingers, worsened with prolonged elbow flexion.
p.63
Chronic Pain Management
What is self-efficacy in the context of pain management?
The belief in one's control over their own life and pain experience.
p.54
Pelvic Floor Disorders
Which athletes are commonly affected by sports hernia?
Ice hockey and soccer players.
p.59
Chronic Pain Management
What characterizes neuropathic pain?
It is often described as burning or electric sensations.
p.47
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the next step in treatment for a radial head fracture with minimal displacement?
Conservative management with immobilization and follow-up.
p.16
Foot and Ankle Injuries
What is hind foot valgus?
A condition where the heel tilts outward, causing the foot to flatten.
p.63
Chronic Pain Management
What does the pain catastrophizing scale measure?
The degree to which individuals think about their pain.
p.59
Chronic Pain Management
What are the risks associated with anti-inflammatory medications?
GI bleed, renal toxicity, and cardiovascular risks such as heart attack and stroke.
p.55
Chronic Pain Management
What is a negative straight leg test indicative of?
It suggests that the pain is not originating from the lumbar spine.
p.61
Chronic Pain Management
What types of medications are effective for neuropathic pain?
Gabapentin, pregabalin, tricyclic antidepressants, and SNRIs.
p.63
Chronic Pain Management
How do perspectives of pain affect perceived pain levels?
Expectations and beliefs influence actual perceived pain.
p.54
Pelvic Floor Disorders
What is the typical treatment for osteitis pubis?
Self-limiting, typically rest for 9 months.
p.59
Chronic Pain Management
What is addiction in relation to drug use?
A compulsive drug-seeking disorder characterized by loss of control, craving, compulsive behavior, and continued use despite consequences.
p.46
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is a common treatment for Lateral Epicondylitis?
Rest, adjusting racket string tension, increasing grip size, shock wave therapy, physical therapy, and possibly dry needling.
p.46
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the recommended treatment for a distal biceps tendon tear?
Surgical repair due to significant loss of strength and function.
p.46
Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What causes Olecranon Bursitis?
Prolonged periods of resting elbows on a desk.
p.63
Chronic Pain Management
What is PNE implementation?
One-on-one education involving physical therapy, occupational therapy, and screening.
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Pelvic Floor Disorders
What are pelvic floor disorders?
A group of disorders caused by injury or weakness of the muscles and connective tissue of the pelvic area.
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Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What are the treatment options for DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis?
Rest, physical therapy, PRP injections, and surgical release if conservative measures fail.
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Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What injury is commonly associated with baseball pitchers?
Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL) Tear.
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Shoulder and Knee Disorders
What is the recommended treatment for Olecranon Bursitis?
Avoiding pressure on the elbows and possible aspiration if needed.
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Chronic Pain Management
What is chronic pain?
Pain that persists longer than acute disease, specifically more than 90 days.
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Chronic Pain Management
What should be monitored when using anti-inflammatory medications?
Renal function, especially in small amounts of people who may experience renal toxicity.
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Chronic Pain Management
What is a key benefit of anti-inflammatory medications in chronic pain management?
They have no tolerance or dependence and provide an opioid-sparing effect.
