What is the treatment for sports hernia?
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Physical therapy and rest.
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What is the treatment for sports hernia?
Physical therapy and rest.
What is chronic ankle/subtalar instability?
A condition characterized by recurrent ankle sprains and a feeling of instability.
What does the impingement sign indicate?
It indicates pain in the shoulder when the arm is raised between 160-120 degrees.
How is a Grade I or II AC joint injury treated?
With a sling.
What types of pain should be assessed in a general examination?
Type of pain, weakness, and whether the patient hears crepitus.
What is a common issue associated with the glenohumeral joint?
Repeat dislocation.
What are some recommended treatments for symptoms caused by pressure on the foot?
Shoe wear changes and rest.
What is essential for managing a child with fatty acid disease?
A specific routine for nutrition and a carefully scheduled physical activity.
What should be included in a vascular exam related to shoulder issues?
Examine pulses.
What is chondrocalcinosis?
Calcification within the meniscus.
What is a Baker's cyst?
A popliteal cyst seen on ultrasound.
What treatment can be used to visualize ligament tears in subtalar joint synovitis?
Arthroscopic examination.
What are the symptoms of Osgood Schlatter disease?
Pain increased with activity, pulling on the tuberosity, and anterior knee swelling.
What is the condition characterized by compression neuropathy of the tibial nerve in the medial ankle?
Tarsal tunnel syndrome.
What are osteoarthritic changes associated with?
Spondylosis.
What is the focus of physical therapy for ankle injuries?
Proprioception and kinesthetic awareness of body position and movement.
What happens to the pain after reaching 120 degrees in shoulder elevation?
The pain goes away as the arm flattens out.
What are the symptoms of an inflammatory response in the knee?
Pain, stiffness, swelling, and crepitus (no squeaking).
What condition is characterized by subtalar joint synovitis and impingement?
Sinus tarsi syndrome.
What are the recommended treatments for a dislocated shoulder?
Rest, protection, and strengthening.
How is scoliosis defined?
By the direction of convexity.
What might a mild Achilles tendon contracture indicate?
A shortening of the Achilles tendon that can affect ankle mobility.
What are Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles?
They are sensory receptors that detect changes in muscle tension and length, respectively.
What is the treatment approach for Grade III AC joint injuries?
Controversial, ranging from conservative to surgical.
How does Jersey Finger differ from Mallet Finger?
Jersey Finger is sort of the opposite of Mallet Finger.
Which area of the foot is affected in subtalar joint synovitis?
Medial neck of the talus and superior aspect of the anterior calcaneus.
What is cuff tear arthropathy?
A condition where the humeral head rides high on the glenoid.
What medication is linked to Phocomelia?
Thalidomide.
What is subtalar joint impingement?
A condition where the subtalar joint experiences pain due to mechanical blockage.
What is the significance of a Grade III AC joint injury?
It involves a tear of all three ligaments.
What information do Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles relay?
They relay information about muscle tension and length to the CNS.
What physiologic changes occur during exercise?
Increased heart rate, enhanced blood flow to muscles, and elevated metabolic rate.
What does the term 'Cobb angle' refer to?
A measurement used to quantify the degree of spinal curvature.
What are the treatment options for the woman's condition?
Orthotics, anti-inflammatory medications, and possibly surgical decompression for persistent symptoms after 3-6 months.
What condition is characterized by repetitive overload tendinopathy of the Gluteus Medius and Minimus?
Greater trochanteric pain syndrome.
What is a sign of avascular necrosis in the shoulder?
Flattening of the humeral head.
What is posterior tibial tendon dysfunction?
A progressive collapsing foot deformity due to tendon inflammation or tearing.
What is an inversion sprain?
An injury that occurs when the ankle rolls inward, often leading to ligament damage.
What is unique about a Grade IV AC joint injury?
The clavicle moves posteriorly, which is very rare.
What conditions can cause the impingement sign?
Inflammation of the bursa or tendon.
What is the primary diagnostic tool for knee inflammation?
Standing x-ray.
What diagnostic tool may confirm the diagnosis?
Nerve conduction studies showing delayed nerve conduction.
What are common symptoms of subtalar joint synovitis?
Puffiness, swelling, and a pronated foot with calcaneal valgus.
What is Haglund’s deformity?
Inflammation at the Achilles tendon insertion leading to calcification.
How is Myasthenia Gravis (MG) treated?
With Ach inhibition to increase Ach levels, chronic immunosuppressive therapies, rapid short-acting immunomodulating treatments, and thymectomy.
What does the term spondylosis refer to?
A general term for degenerative spine changes.
What are the most common types of anti-depressants?
Tricyclics and SSRIs.
What imaging is used for AAA diagnosis?
Ultrasound (US) or bowel CT.
What is medial plantar nerve entrapment also known as?
Jogger’s foot.
What characterizes Grade I AC joint injury?
Just injury to the AC joint itself with tenderness and swelling.
What can cause channelopathies?
They can be genetic or acquired.
What is the first line of treatment for knee inflammation?
Non-surgical options unless everything else fails, such as knee replacement.
What is the typical treatment for Jersey Finger?
Reinsertion of the tendon using a dorsal button.
What is the most common cause of lateral hip pain in adults?
Greater trochanteric pain syndrome.
What imaging techniques are best for diagnosing a Baker's cyst?
MRI and ultrasound.
What are the types of hand malformations mentioned?
Syndactyly, macrodactyly, and polydactyly.
What is the mode of inheritance for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
X-linked recessive, specifically due to mutations in the dystrophin gene located at Xp21.
What is the gross appearance of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Progressive muscle weakness starting in the pelvic girdle, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, and a waddling gait.
When do the upper and lower limb buds form during gestation?
Between Day 24-26 (4th week of gestation).
What happens in a Grade II AC joint injury?
The clavicle pulls away, creating more space, and a tear starts.
What type of pain is associated with nerve injury in the ankle?
Dull achy pain on the lateral aspect.
What is the treatment for Type IV-VI AC joint injuries?
Surgical intervention.
How does shoulder pain typically present?
It radiates from the glenohumeral joint down to the insertion of the deltoid on the humeral shaft.
What condition is associated with chondrocalcinosis?
Pseudogout.
What type of footwear is recommended for managing subtalar joint synovitis?
Appropriate shoes.
What are the three ligaments associated with the shoulder?
Coracoacromial, coracoclavicular, and capsule.
What is a potential injury associated with scoliosis?
Rib fracture.
What type of tissue is the glenoid labrum made of?
Fibrocartilaginous tissue.
What injury did the football player sustain?
Jersey Finger.
What sensations might a person experience in the sole of the foot due to tibial nerve compression?
Aching, burning, numbness, and tingling.
What is a Lisfranc injury?
A traumatic disruption between the medial cuneiform and the base of the second metatarsal at the tarsal metatarsal junction.
What characterizes a Grade VI AC joint injury?
It results from a huge traumatic event and is rare.
What symptoms does the 50-year-old woman present with?
Burning pain and numbness along the inside of her ankle and the bottom of her foot, worsening throughout the day.
What causes Jersey Finger?
Forced extension of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint.
What is Phocomelia?
A condition characterized by missing or underdeveloped bones and severely shortened limbs.
What causes a Baker's cyst?
It comes from something inside the knee, with a small opening in the knee joint during flexion.
What test is associated with Greater trochanteric pain syndrome?
+FABER.
What symptoms can arise from pressure on the medial structures of the foot?
Pain, numbness, and tingling in the sole and toes.
What causes lateral ankle pain?
Repetitive stretching of the ankle.
How does the CNS respond to information from Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles?
It adjusts muscle activity to prevent injury and maintain posture.
What is the most common form of cardiac channelopathy?
Congenital long QT syndrome.
How does neck pain typically present?
The patient grabs between the neck and the AC joint.
What is dextroscoliosis?
Right convexity of the spine.
What is slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)?
Disruption of the growth plate.
What condition is characterized by pain in the ball of the foot that worsens with walking or standing?
Metatarsalgia.
What is Duloxetine used for?
Diabetic neuropathic pain and pain after shingles.
What type of athlete is commonly affected by Baxter’s nerve entrapment?
Running athletes.
What characterizes Legg Calve Perthes Disease?
The leg cannot perfuse properly.
What is Luxation erecta?
A condition where the arm is hyperabducted and fixed overhead, with the humeral head displaced inferiorly.
What factors contribute to the etiology of lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders?
Age, injury, overuse, and genetic predisposition.
What position should the patient be in for palpation and ROM assessment?
Supine, to lock the scapula against the thorax.
What is anterolateral impingement?
A condition affecting the front and side of the ankle, often causing pain and instability.
What tests are used to assess ankle stability?
Drawer test and varus test.
What nerves are commonly injured in lateral ankle pain?
Superficial peroneal or sural nerve.
What does a Grade V AC joint injury indicate?
A tint of skin where the clavicle is pushing through, which is rare.
What are channelopathies?
Disorders caused by ion channel issues, specifically K, Ca, and Na channels.
What is Jersey Finger?
A trauma flexor tendon avulsion of the FDP from its insertion at the distal phalanx, often caused by yanking on a jersey.
What diagnostic method is used for AC joint injuries?
X-ray to see how much the clavicle has moved away.
What additional sensation does the woman report?
Tingling sensations that occasionally radiate into the toes.
What treatments are recommended for knee inflammation?
Pain medications, hyaluronic acid, physical therapy, weight loss, and low-impact exercise.
What is levoscoliosis?
Left convexity of the spine.
How is chondrocalcinosis diagnosed?
Synovial fluid analysis to look for crystals and x-ray to see calcium lineup on meniscus.
What chromosomal issue is associated with Phocomelia?
Chromosome 8 issue.
When is surgery indicated for scoliosis?
If the Cobb angle is greater than 45-50 degrees.
What additional treatment can help manage symptoms of subtalar joint synovitis?
Ankle compression.
What does the sulcus sign test for?
It checks if the humeral head slides out of the joint more than the other side, indicating instability.
What does the drop arm test indicate?
It can indicate inflammation, although it is not as diagnostic.
What can chronic stress cause in relation to the ribs?
Rib fractures and trauma.
What are the clinical features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Onset before age 5, wheelchair-bound by age 11, Gowers' sign, and dilated cardiomyopathy.
What is assessed during the supraspinatus test?
The patient pushes up against resistance.
What symptom is associated with Anterolateral Impingement syndrome?
Pain with dorsiflexion.
What is a risk associated with femoral acetabular impingement?
Labral tear.
How is spondylolisthesis graded?
It is graded from 1 to 5.
How long is back pain considered chronic?
More than 12 weeks.
What factors can disrupt limb development leading to Amelia?
Disrupted apical ectodermal ridge or fibroblast growth factor 8.
What percentage of back pain cases resolve within one week?
30-60%.
Which tests are positive in cases of labral tears?
FADIR and FABER tests.
What causes lateral recess stenosis in lumbar radiculopathy?
Disc protrusion.
What are the typical presentations of rotator cuff tears in young vs. older individuals?
Young person = traumatic event; Older person = wear and tear.
What is the mechanism of myasthenia gravis?
It is an autoimmune disease with antibodies against acetylcholine receptors, causing loss of receptors.
What is a key symptom of rotator cuff tears?
Pain does NOT go past the elbow.
What is a key differentiator between shoulder and neck pain?
Shoulder pain radiates down the arm, while neck pain is localized between the neck and AC joint.
What are the characteristics of osteoarthritis in the glenohumeral joint?
Bone on bone appearance, loss of cartilage, and squeak noise with movement.
What is Osgood Schlatter disease?
A disorder of the tibial tuberosity occurring in adolescence.
What mutation is associated with Achondroplasia?
Fibroblast growth receptor 3 mutation.
What are the physical characteristics of Achondroplasia?
Shortened proximal limbs and a shortened face.
What is the microscopic appearance of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Progressive loss of myofibers replaced by adipose tissue and increased connective tissue.
What caused the sudden pain in the player's finger?
Grabbing an opponent’s jersey during a game.
What areas of the foot are affected by symptoms of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
Sole of the foot, distal foot toes, and heel.
What is the etiology of osteoarthritis?
Degenerative wear and tear leading to cartilage breakdown and bone-on-bone contact.
What is spondylolisthesis?
Anterior displacement of a vertebra on the one beneath it.
What is the significance of myoblasts during limb development?
They aggregate to form large muscle masses in each limb.
What is a common symptom of a biceps injury?
Biceps balled up by the elbow.
What is lumbar radiculopathy characterized by?
Dermatomal pain distribution.
What should a comprehensive treatment plan for knee disorders include?
Pharmacologic interventions and rehabilitation strategies.
What can result from the overload of the acetabular rim in adult hip dysplasia?
Secondary osteoarthritis (OA).
What are the components of the nervous system involved in pain processing?
The brain and spinal cord.
What is the gold standard for diagnosing rotator cuff tears?
MRI.
What causes an AC joint separation?
Injury to the AC joint from a direct blow or fall, commonly seen in football players.
What are the primary symptoms of the non-inflammatory disorder?
Back pain and spinal stiffness.
What imaging technique has good sensitivity for metastatic breast cancer?
CT (Computed Tomography).
What is the historical use of Edrophonium in myasthenia gravis?
It was given to increase acetylcholine and used to diagnose myasthenia gravis.
What test is currently used to diagnose myasthenia gravis?
Anti-AChR antibody test.
What movements aggravate peroneal tendon injuries?
Plantar flexion and inversion.
What is the role of Neostigmine in myasthenia gravis?
It increases acetylcholine and does not penetrate the CNS.
What nerve injury should be checked for in Glenohumeral dislocation?
Axillary nerve injury.
What can happen if the superior peroneal retinaculum tears?
Tendons can become unstable and subluxate or dislocate.
What is a non-operative treatment option for foot conditions?
Ultrasound-guided injection.
What is a common deformity associated with metatarsalgia?
Claw toe.
What is the most common pattern of cervical spine instability in rheumatoid cervical spondylitis?
Atlantoaxial subluxation.
What does MRI reveal in cases of osteomyelitis?
Marrow edema and soft tissue involvement.
What are the two types of biceps tendonitis?
Impingement tendonitis and attritional tendinitis.
What is the gold standard for diagnosing foraminal compression?
CT myelogram.
What are some treatment options for sacroiliac joint dysfunction?
Injection, OMT, prolotherapy, radiofrequency.
What is the purpose of the toe heel walk test?
It is great for testing nerve function.
What is the function of the glenoid labrum?
It deepens the glenoid cavity to help stabilize the shoulder.
What are the grades of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction?
Grade 1 (single heel rise possible, no deformity), Grade 2 (cannot do single heel rise), Grade 3 (fixed subtalar joint).
How does arm motion relate to scapula movement?
With motion of the arm, there is movement of the scapula.
What is spondylolysis?
A defect in the pars interarticularis, usually at L5.
What are common symptoms of rib fractures?
Swelling, bruising, and difficulty breathing.
What is a reduction maneuver for a dislocated shoulder?
Pull down and the humeral head will pop back in.
What happens to the joint space in osteoarthritis?
The joint space narrows, particularly on the medial side.
What is being assessed in the subscapularis test?
Subscapularis strength.
What is costochondritis?
Inflammation of the cartilage in the anterior chest wall.
What is the primary goal of Pain Neuroscience Education (PNE)?
To change a patient’s perception of pain by shifting the focus from structural damage to how the nervous system contributes to pain.
What characterizes Frozen Shoulder?
Decreased tissue in the shoulder, preventing movement even passively.
What is slipping rib syndrome?
Pain in the lower chest or upper abdomen due to excessive rib motion.
What is the positive Hooking maneuver?
Placing fingers under the lower costal margin and pulling hands anteriorly; pain or clicking indicates a positive result.
What is the role of dystrophin in muscle cells?
It helps maintain the structural integrity of muscle cells by connecting the cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix.
Can disc herniations heal on their own?
Yes, usually without surgery.
What are common treatments for rotator cuff tears?
Decrease inflammation with injections or pills, physical therapy, and open repair.
What is a characteristic of the glenoid cavity that affects dislocation risk?
It is shallow.
What distinguishes Becker Muscular Dystrophy from Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
Becker Muscular Dystrophy has partial dystrophin deficiency, later onset (age 5-15 or adult), and lower progression compared to DMD.
When are opioids typically prescribed?
For moderate to severe pain (6-10 pain rating) when other medications are not effective.
What indicates that a condition has been present for a while?
The rounded appearance of the area, similar to a stone in a river.
At what age does Becker Muscular Dystrophy typically onset?
Between ages 5-15 or in adulthood.
When does calcific tendonitis become painful?
When calcium is started to be resorbed by the body.
What imaging finding is characteristic of Ankylosing Spondylitis?
Bamboo spine.
What injury does the 40-year-old construction worker have?
Superficial peroneal nerve injury.
What is the recommended treatment for the first metatarsophalangeal joint injury?
Rest for 2 weeks and taping before returning to competition.
What is the typical treatment for Haglund's Deformity?
Shoe modification, heel lifts, and anti-inflammatory medications.
What does the Sulcus sign test assess?
Shoulder instability.
What imaging finding is noted in the 55-year-old woman's case?
MRI shows tendon degeneration or partial tear.
What are some non-degenerative causes of cervical radiculopathy?
Infection, nerve root infarction, and tumors.
What condition does the 60-year-old woman with a history of ankle fractures have?
Subtalar joint arthritis.
What percentage loss of vertebral height indicates a vertebral compression fracture?
20% or 4mm.
Who is most commonly affected by Haglund’s deformity?
Distance runners.
What is the recommended treatment for Osgood Schlatter disease?
Decrease activity, implement a stretching program, use NSAIDs, and apply ice.
What are common symptoms of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
Pain and paresthesia of the plantar foot.
What should be rotated to visualize the Y view in shoulder X-rays?
The shoulder.
What makes diagnosing Anterolateral Impingement syndrome difficult?
Normal imaging is typical.
What type of fracture is commonly associated with spondylolysis?
Fatigue fracture early in life.
What is the initial treatment for tarsal tunnel syndrome?
Bracing and short leg cast.
Where does Prepatellar Bursitis occur?
Between the skin and the patella.
What does PSA stand for in the context of prostate cancer?
Prostate-Specific Antigen.
What is Amelia in the context of musculoskeletal malformations?
Complete absence of one or more limbs due to failure of inductive signaling factors.
What are the treatment options for a biceps injury?
Physical therapy (PT), injections, NSAIDs, and surgery to fix the rotator cuff.
What should be examined to check for infection in Prepatellar Bursitis?
Synovial fluid.
What is the usual treatment if the bursitis is not infected?
Aspiration and steroids.
What is often required for adult hip dysplasia?
Surgery.
What percentage of all dislocations are Glenohumeral dislocations?
50%.
What should be checked alongside dermatomes during a neurological examination?
Muscle strength and deep tendon reflexes.
What is the most common neuromuscular junction disorder?
Myasthenia gravis.
What symptom does the 45-year-old woman describe in relation to her foot pain?
Walking on pebbles.
What is the primary function of opioids?
To bind to cell membranes and affect pain transmission.
Who is more commonly affected by calcific tendonitis?
Females.
What is the typical management for cervical strain?
Conservative management including postural fixes, pillow position, stretching, cold therapy, and OMT.
What conservative treatments are recommended for metatarsalgia?
Shoe modifications and pads in the area of tenderness.
At what age does Legg Calve Perthes Disease typically occur?
4-8 years old.
What should be assumed about trauma patients regarding cervical spine injuries?
All trauma patients have a cervical spine injury until proven otherwise.
What is Turf Toe?
A condition characterized by pain at the base of the big toe due to hyperextension.
What changes should be looked for on an X-ray when evaluating osteomyelitis?
Lytic changes (bone eaten away with erosions).
What may improve symptoms of sacroiliac joint dysfunction?
A tight belt.
How do lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders affect overall body function?
They can alter movement patterns and lead to compensatory mechanisms in the body.
What happens to the humeral head during biceps tendonitis?
The humeral head moves underneath the tendon, which itself does not move.
What does a positive Faber test indicate?
Pain localized to the SI joint.
What do muscle biopsies show in mitochondrial disorder metabolic myopathies?
Ragged-Red fibers.
What are the symptoms of Kearns-Sayre syndrome?
Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia and droopy eyelids.
What are the diagnostic methods for biceps tendonitis?
Ecchymosis with rupture, X-ray, ultrasound, and MRI.
What is the likely treatment for a Lisfranc injury?
Surgery may be needed.
What is the mainstay treatment for Greater trochanteric pain syndrome?
Physical therapy (PT).
What is the primary symptom of IT band syndrome?
Pain over the IT band.
What is the position used in the supraspinatus test?
The arm is 90 degrees abducted with the thumb down in an 'empty can' position.
What is Prune belly syndrome?
A condition characterized by the absence of abdominal muscles.
What is the main symptom of Jersey Finger in this case?
Inability to flex the distal phalanx.
What is a common site for metastases in prostate cancer?
Lumbar spine.
What may be required during reduction maneuvers for a shoulder dislocation?
Anesthesia.
Is Prepatellar Bursitis intraarticular or extraarticular?
100% extraarticular.
What is the typical treatment approach for Prepatellar Bursitis?
Treatment is done outside the knee joint.
What is the definition of insertion in the context of muscles?
The bone that moves due to muscle contraction.
What does Pain Neuroscience Education (PNE) help patients understand?
The biological and neurological processes behind pain.
What is the primary protein lacking in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)?
Dystrophin.
What does the squeeze test help diagnose?
It is used for diagnosing conditions related to the foot, particularly involving nerve entrapment.
What are the clinical features of myasthenia gravis?
Progressive fatigable muscle weakness, ptosis, diplopia, dyspnea, dysphagia, and difficulty chewing.
What are the treatment recommendations for managing muscular dystrophy?
Diet, calcium, vitamin D, speech-language pathology (SLP), and monitoring for pubertal tracking and adrenal crisis risk.
What is a characteristic feature of a disc bulge?
It is symmetric.
When is surgical intervention needed for AAA?
When the aneurysm is greater than 5 cm.
What are common musculoskeletal disorders affecting the lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip?
Conditions such as herniated discs, osteoarthritis, and sciatica.
What is the purpose of a bone scan in the evaluation of metastatic breast cancer?
For early evaluation.
What are the three types of opioids?
Naturally occurring, semi-synthetic, and synthetic.
What type of bone metastases are associated with prostate cancer?
Blastic bone metastases.
What is sacroiliac joint dysfunction?
A degenerative condition of the sacroiliac joint resulting in lower back pain.
What should be isolated during scapula assessment?
Other movements to determine if the issue is with the scapula or glenohumeral joint.
What does cervical spondylosis refer to?
A non-specific term describing effects from degenerative changes in the spine.
What symptoms does the construction worker experience?
Numbness and tingling along the outer lateral side of the lower leg and dorsum of the foot.
What is multimodal therapy?
Combining different types of medications, such as opioids and NSAIDs.
What physical characteristic is associated with scoliosis?
Rib hump.
What symptom does the tennis player report during activity?
A feeling of popping or snapping along the outside of the ankle.
What is the effectiveness of medical cannabis in pain management?
According to some doctors, it doesn't do much for pain.
What is a characteristic of subtalar joint arthritis?
Limited inversion and eversion compared to the unaffected side.
What diagnostic test is used for spinal disorders?
X-ray.
Who is most commonly affected by hip osteoarthritis?
Older adults.
What symptom is common among patients with subtalar joint synovitis or impingement?
Pain that worsens with inversion movements.
What are the recommended X-ray views for shoulder assessment?
A/P, scapular Y (easiest view), or transthoracic view.
What is Anterolateral Impingement syndrome?
Impingement of the talus with inversion, often after an inversion ankle sprain.
What is femoral acetabular impingement?
A condition where the hip joint is not shaped normally, causing contact between the femoral head-neck junction and the acetabular rim.
What structures are visualized in the scapular Y view?
Acromion, coracoid, and glenoid.
What is the C-sign in relation to femoral acetabular impingement?
A sign indicating hip pain, often described by patients as a C-shaped hand position over the hip.
What imaging technique is used to diagnose rib fractures?
X-ray.
When is surgery considered for tarsal tunnel syndrome?
After 3-6 months of unsuccessful conservative treatment.
What imaging confirmed the injury?
Imaging confirmed avulsion of the FDP tendon from the distal phalanx.
What surgical technique is used for reinsertion of the tendon?
Dorsal button technique.
What is the most common tear in rotator cuff injuries?
Supraspinatus tear.
What does origin refer to in muscle anatomy?
The bone that does not move with muscle contraction.
What are some predisposing factors for Frozen Shoulder?
Immobility, diabetes, and thyroid issues.
When might surgery be needed for Prepatellar Bursitis?
If aspiration and steroids are not effective.
What characterizes Type Ia myofibers?
Slow twitch, red due to high myoglobin, primarily use aerobic respiration, suited for long-distance runners.
What anatomical feature contributes to the motion of the shoulder joint?
Redundant capsule.
What is often required for treating Baxter’s nerve entrapment?
Surgery, often involving fusion.
What defines Type IIb myofibers?
Fast twitch, minimal myoglobin, rely on anaerobic respiration for rapid, powerful movements lasting less than a minute.
What does PNE shift the focus from in understanding pain?
From natural biology to neurobiology and neurophysiology.
What is a common symptom of Becker Muscular Dystrophy?
Slow progressive muscle weakness and foot drop.
What symptom is commonly associated with Legg Calve Perthes Disease?
Painless limp.
What are the initial treatments for inflammation in tendon issues?
Ice and ultrasound to reduce inflammation and break apart calcium capsule.
What is the toe abnormality condition that often accompanies metatarsalgia?
The specific toe abnormality is not mentioned, but it is often associated with conditions like hammertoe or bunions.
What is the role of yoga in pain management?
Yoga is used for managing low back pain.
What is the primary treatment for Ankylosing Spondylitis?
Non-operative, NSAIDs, OMT.
What is a common symptom of peroneal tendon injuries?
Chronic retromalleolar swelling.
What symptoms does the 40-year-old long-distance runner present with?
Burning pain on the inner side of the sole, radiating to the big toe and second toe, worsened after long runs, accompanied by numbness.
What is cervical radiculopathy?
A condition characterized by a pinched nerve and nerve root pathology.
What does increased pain during the Speed test indicate?
Bicipital tendinitis or a problem with the long head of the biceps.
What activities worsen the pain for the soccer player with Anterolateral Impingement Syndrome?
Running and activities involving forced dorsiflexion and inversion.
What condition involves the separation of a segment of subchondral bone and articular cartilage?
Osteochondritis dissecans.
What are channelopathies?
Disorders affecting potassium, calcium, and sodium channels, characterized by episodic weakness.
How is osteitis pubis typically diagnosed?
Bone scan for early detection.
What is Poland syndrome?
A condition characterized by the absence of pectoral muscles.
What are common musculoskeletal disorders affecting the knee?
Osteoarthritis and other conditions related to etiology and pathophysiology.
How do the limb buds rotate by Day 56?
The upper limb rotates laterally through 90 degrees, and the lower limb rotates medially.
What tendon is involved in Jersey Finger?
Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon.
What is important for managing pain related to rib fractures?
Pain control, OMT (Osteopathic Manipulative Treatment), and rarely surgery.
What physical examination finding may indicate prostate cancer metastasis?
Bony midline tenderness in the spine.
What condition is characterized by urine issues and hematuria?
Urolithiasis.
What is the goal of the surgical intervention for Jersey Finger?
To restore function.
What percentage of back pain cases resolve in 6-8 weeks?
60-90%.
What imaging technique is often used to diagnose urolithiasis?
Non-contrast CT.
Which nerve root is typically compressed by a herniated disc?
The more inferior nerve root.
What are the signs of an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?
Pulsatile abdominal mass.
What is unique about Type IIa myofibers?
They are pink, can switch between aerobic and anaerobic respiration, and support about 30 minutes of activity.
Which ligaments are involved in an AC joint separation?
AC ligaments and coracoclavicular ligament.
What type of pain is associated with ankylosing spondylitis?
Dull back pain worse in the morning before age 40.
How are myofibers classified?
By how fast they contract and how quickly they regenerate ATP/energy.
What is one of the aims of educating patients through PNE?
To improve coping strategies for pain management.
What is the significance of HLA-B27 in ankylosing spondylitis?
It is sensitive but not specific.
What is the Windlass test used for?
To rule out plantar fasciitis.
What is metatarsalgia?
Forefoot pain in the plantar surface of one or more of the lesser metatarsals, commonly affecting the 2nd and 3rd metatarsals.
What distinguishes myelopathy from radiculopathy?
Myelopathy involves widespread and bilateral neurological deficits, while radiculopathy has more localized symptoms.
Where does the long head of the biceps arise from?
The glenoid fossa.
What characterizes Pompe disease?
Associated with hypotonic baby syndrome and requires a muscle biopsy for diagnosis (deficiency in GAA).
What is the purpose of platelet-rich plasma (PRP) in pain management?
PRP is used as a treatment option for various pain conditions.
What does a positive Tinel's sign indicate in the context of medial plantar nerve entrapment?
Nerve compression or irritation in the tarsal tunnel.
What is the cause of muscle carnitine deficiency?
Deficiency in carnitine, with the transporter gene located on the long arm of chromosome 5 (SLC22A5).
What biomechanical implications arise from disorders of the lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip?
They can lead to altered gait, balance issues, and increased risk of injury.
What findings are seen on X-rays for subtalar joint arthritis?
Joint space narrowing and osteophytes.
What is Leigh disease associated with?
Mutations in mitochondrial DNA or pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency, leading to poor suckling and vomiting.
What is diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)?
A condition characterized by calcification or ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament.
What are the symptoms of Lateral Epicondylitis?
Pain on the outer elbow and weak grip, especially when extending the wrist or supinating against resistance.
What are the different types of pain mentioned?
Chronic, acute, subacute, and perioperative pain.
What condition can still allow for shoulder movement despite severe glenohumeral disease?
Frozen shoulder.
What motion can be used to assess glenohumeral motion?
Shrugging motion.
What does the subscapularis test involve?
The patient places their hand behind their back and lifts it away while resisting downward pressure.
What is the duration for subacute back pain?
6 to 12 weeks.
What characterizes a pistol grip deformity?
An abnormal shape of the femoral head and neck junction resembling the grip of a pistol.
What can cause labral tears?
They can result from trauma or microtrauma.
What is adult hip dysplasia?
Abnormal development of the hip joint resulting in a shallow acetabulum with lack of anterior and lateral coverage.
Why is it important to analyze the biomechanical implications of knee disorders?
To assess how these disorders affect overall body function and movement patterns.
What are the three types of myofibers?
Type Ia, Type IIa, and Type IIb.
What is the primary symptom of Baxter's nerve entrapment?
Chronic heel pain that is worse in the morning and after prolonged standing.
What should be ruled out when diagnosing costochondritis?
Other serious conditions.
What are the psychological and environmental factors considered in PNE?
They influence how pain is perceived and managed.
How is Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy diagnosed?
By increased creatine kinase (CK) and aldose levels; genetic testing confirms the diagnosis.
What imaging may show thickening of the plantar fascia or nerve entrapment?
MRI.
What are the symptoms of a cervical strain?
Pain and stiffness with neck movement, often due to neck muscle strain.
What is a typical presentation of calcific tendonitis?
Spot right over supraspinatus; can be pain-free or cause mild to moderate discomfort.
What is the diagnosis for the 22-year-old basketball player with recurrent ankle inversion sprains?
Chronic ankle instability.
What is the maximum morphine milligram equivalent (MME) recommended per day?
90 mg/day, with a recommendation to keep it under 50 mg/day.
What are the main categories of metabolic myopathies?
Disorders of glycogen metabolism, lipid metabolism, mitochondrial diseases, and channelopathies.
What imaging techniques are commonly used for diagnosing lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders?
X-rays, MRI, and CT scans.
What should be assessed in addition to sensation after a Glenohumeral dislocation?
Vascular function.
What causes Turf Toe?
Hyperextension of the big toe during activities like football.
What does a bone scan indicate in the context of osteomyelitis?
High sensitivity but low specificity for bone turnover.
What imaging is used for diagnosing metatarsalgia?
Weight bearing AP and lateral X-ray.
What is the most common type of fracture in the thoracic spine?
Vertebral compression fracture.
What conservative treatments are recommended for peroneal tendon injuries?
Short leg cast and activity modification.
What are conventional methods for managing low back pain?
Physical therapy, weight loss, pharmacotherapy, and psychotherapy.
What is the diagnosis for the 16-year-old male basketball player with intermittent ankle pain?
Osteochondritis dissecans.
What imaging may reveal a lucent area with an overlying sclerotic rim in the talus?
X-rays.
What symptoms are associated with medial plantar nerve entrapment?
Pain of the heel and medial plantar arch.
What medications are commonly used to treat nociceptive pain?
NSAIDs, acetaminophen, and opioids.
What imaging can confirm a scaphoid fracture?
MRI or CT scan, especially if initial X-rays are negative.
What happens to the limb buds by the 6th week of gestation?
The limbs have extended and lie in the coronal plane.
What is Prepatellar Bursitis commonly known as?
House Maid’s knees.
What defines acute back pain duration?
Less than 6 weeks.
What conditions can be assessed using the shrugging motion?
Complete rotator cuff tear and glenohumeral arthritis.
What are osteophytes?
Bone spurs that develop in response to joint degeneration.
What diagnostic evaluations are important for knee disorders?
Physical examinations and imaging techniques.
How is costochondritis characterized?
It is benign and self-limiting.
What symptom is commonly associated with urolithiasis?
Flank tenderness.
Which lumbar levels are commonly affected by lumbar radiculopathy?
L4/5 or L5/S1.
What are the associated abnormalities of myasthenia gravis?
Thymic hyperplasia (65%) and thymoma (15%).
What does PNE aim to reduce in patients?
Fear and misconceptions about pain.
At what age is the non-inflammatory disorder more common?
50 years or older.
What does the dorsiflexion of the big toe indicate in Baxter's nerve entrapment?
Pain at the medial aspect of the heel and arch of the foot.
What is calcific tendonitis?
Calcified deposits within the rotator cuff.
What are the two types of causes for Glenohumeral dislocations?
Traumatic and atraumatic.
What is Ankylosing Spondylitis classified as?
Seronegative autoimmune spondyloarthropathy.
What is important to expose during a posture assessment?
Both shoulders.
What does PNE consider in addition to biological factors?
Psychological and social correlates of pain.
What should be performed to rule out proximal nerve lesions in the lower extremity?
A full lower extremity neuro exam.
How is a positive Windlass test indicated?
By pain at the medial aspect of the heel or along the arch of the foot during dorsiflexion of the big toe.
What sensation do individuals with metatarsalgia often report?
It feels like walking on pebbles.
What imaging technique is used to assess cervical stenosis/myelopathy?
MRI.
What causes irritation in biceps tendonitis?
The synovium coming out of the joint and getting irritated.
What symptoms are associated with McArdle disease?
Exercise-induced cramps and myoglobinuria.
What imaging techniques are used for diagnosing peroneal tendon injuries?
MRI and dynamic ultrasonography.
What is radicular pain?
Pain that radiates from the back and hip into the legs through the spine.
What is the most common type of biceps tendonitis?
Impingement tendonitis.
What are the physical exam findings for a Lisfranc injury?
Swelling and bruising across the midfoot, pain on palpation of the tarsometatarsal joints, and pain elicited by midfoot compression.
What are common symptoms of osteochondritis dissecans?
Locking of the joint, history of lingering pain, and bony tenderness over the medial or lateral talar dome.
What are some treatment options for hip osteoarthritis?
Physical therapy, walking aids, weight management, and surgery for joint preservation in young patients.
What is the primary treatment for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Reducing nerve inflammation with gabapentin or surgical decompression in severe cases.
What is the treatment for Mallet Finger?
Splinting the DIP joint in extension for several weeks.
What are fear avoidance beliefs?
Beliefs that predict how individuals will manage pain and impact their recovery.
What is a common symptom of osteitis pubis?
Pain with rotation of the hip.
What is Cauda Equina syndrome?
A rare medical emergency involving nerve root compression resulting in low back pain and urinary dysfunction.
What type of disorder is characterized by calcification and ossification of spinal ligaments?
Non-inflammatory disorder.
What does an AP X-ray show in relation to metatarsal injuries?
Increased space between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal.
At what age does slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically occur?
12-13 years old.
What limitations does the biomedical model have in understanding pain?
It is limited in defining complex pain and the immune system's role.
What is a key diagnostic feature of the non-inflammatory disorder?
Preservation of the disc joint and no facet joint ankylosis.
What causes tenderness just distal to the medial calcaneal tuberosity?
Compression of the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve (Baxter’s nerve).
What condition is characterized by pain and swelling at the back of the heel?
Haglund's Deformity.
What genetic predisposition is associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis?
HLA B27.
What physical examination finding is associated with Haglund's Deformity?
Tenderness over the posterior heel and a prominent bony exostosis.
What is the diagnosis for the tenderness and swelling over the first metatarsophalangeal joint?
Possible sprain or strain with a small avulsion fracture.
What do X-rays show in a patient with Haglund's Deformity?
Calcaneal prominence and possible retrocalcaneal bursitis.
What neurological aspects should be considered during the examination?
Assessment of nerves and potential dislocations.
What can cervical degenerative disease lead to?
It can lead to cervical radiculopathy due to degeneration or dehydration of disc material.
What is the diagnosis for the 45-year-old tennis player with lateral ankle pain?
Peroneal tendon tear.
What role does stem cell therapy play in pain management?
Stem cell therapy is explored as a treatment for pain.
What imaging findings are associated with medial plantar nerve entrapment?
MRI shows nerve swelling or compression.
What does a positive Gaenslen’s test indicate?
Pain in the right SI joint (if testing the right lower extremity).
What occurs in attritional tendinitis?
Edema, swelling, and possible complete rupture.
What imaging is needed to confirm a Lisfranc injury?
CT or MRI may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
What is Lateral Epicondylitis commonly known as?
Tennis Elbow.
What imaging techniques can show a tear of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) tendon?
Ultrasound or MRI.
What signs are positive in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Phalen’s sign, Tinel’s sign, and flick sign.
What injury occurs when a ball forcibly flexes the fingertip, leading to an inability to extend the DIP joint?
Mallet Finger.
What type of pain is associated with the peripheral nervous system?
Peripheral neuropathic pain.
What is a key symptom of sports hernia?
Tenderness over the pubic tubercle.
What is the primary treatment for Frozen Shoulder?
Keep the shoulder moving with intensive physical therapy, possibly using anesthesia injections first.
What is a notable sign during the examination for Baxter's nerve entrapment?
Positive Tinel's sign over the area where Baxter’s nerve passes.
What discomfort might a patient with urolithiasis experience?
Can't sit comfortably.
What is the treatment for slipped capital femoral epiphysis?
Surgical treatment.
What should be assessed during the initial impression of a shoulder examination?
Look for changes in all areas, including the upper back, active and passive motion, range of motion (ROM), posture, and any scars or lumps.
What are the treatment options for Baxter's nerve entrapment?
Physical therapy, weight loss, and sometimes corticosteroid injections.
What do all types of myofibers have in common?
Each has thick and thin filaments.
What type of injury is whiplash associated with?
Acceleration/deceleration injury, commonly from motor vehicle accidents.
What type of physical therapy is recommended for the basketball player?
Strengthening the surrounding muscles.
What is the first imaging method to evaluate a puncture wound for osteomyelitis?
X-ray.
Where is the pain typically located in sacroiliac joint dysfunction?
Just inferior to the PSIS.
How does tai chi help in pain management?
Tai chi is beneficial for fibromyalgia.
What should be looked for during the examination of a Glenohumeral dislocation?
Fractures.
What symptoms does the football player experience with Turf Toe?
Sudden onset of pain, swelling, and pain at the base of the first toe, aggravated by toe-off.
Describe the Speed test procedure.
Extend the arm forward with the shoulder flexed to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended, and palm facing up. Apply downward resistance to the wrist or forearm.
What condition is diagnosed in the 28-year-old soccer player with chronic ankle pain?
Anterolateral Impingement Syndrome.
What is turf toe?
Pain at the base of the 1st toe due to jamming or hyperextension of the hallux.
What are the grades of turf toe injury?
Grade 1 (still compete), Grade 2 (rest 2 weeks), Grade 3 (3-4 months, big tear).
What condition is diagnosed in the 35-year-old hiker with pain in the outer side of the foot?
Chronic Ankle/Subtalar Instability.
What is the purpose of using contrast in MRI?
To identify tumors, infections, and scar tissue.
What is a bone scan used for?
To detect cancers, bone infections, and metastatic disease.
What is a common treatment for Medial Epicondylitis?
Rest, physical therapy, and activity modification.
What is a common treatment for Cubital Tunnel Syndrome?
Gabapentin for neuropathic pain, corticosteroid injections, and possible surgical nerve release.
What is nociplastic pain?
Pain resulting from permanent changes in the central nervous system, where non-painful stimuli become painful.
What are some conventional medications used to treat chronic pain?
Anti-inflammatory medications and anti-convulsant medications.
Which medications should be avoided in patients with myasthenia gravis?
Any drug with 'cin' at the end (like Telithromycin) and Aminoglycosides.
What physical examination findings are associated with metatarsalgia?
Tenderness over the area, pain on palpation, and plantar calluses.
What does an X-ray show in a patient with ankylosing spondylitis?
Bamboo spine and fusion on SI joints.
What does the Tinel test assess?
It assesses for nerve entrapment, particularly in the foot.
What are common physical exam findings in Glenohumeral dislocation?
Pain, muscle spasms, arm held in abducted and external rotation.
What is the importance of diagnostic evaluations for lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders?
They help in accurately diagnosing conditions through physical examinations and imaging techniques.
What is the purpose of surgery in tendonitis treatment?
To debride the affected area.
What is Type Ia glycogen storage disease?
A deficiency in glucose-6-phosphatase.
What is the purpose of universal precautions in opioid prescribing?
To ensure psych assessment, informed consent, and regular assessment of the 4 A's.
What is Scheuermann’s kyphosis?
A rigid form of spinal kyphosis caused by anterior wedging greater than 5 degrees across 3 consecutive vertebrae.
What type of sound is often associated with peroneal tendon injuries?
A 'pop' sound.
What is the most common injection used to reduce inflammation?
Interlaminar epidural steroid injection.
What is a common treatment for metatarsalgia?
Metatarsal pad.
What are the typical symptoms of a vertebral compression fracture?
Well localized pain to midline spine, often referring in a unilateral or bilateral pattern in the flank.
What test is important for evaluating cervical radiculopathy?
Spurling’s test.
What is hip osteoarthritis?
A degenerative disease of the hip joint causing progressive loss of articular cartilage.
What treatments are typically involved for the hiker with Chronic Ankle/Subtalar Instability?
NSAIDs, physical therapy, and possibly orthotics.
What condition is characterized by pain over the radial side of the wrist, especially during thumb movement?
DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis.
What symptoms are associated with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Numbness and tingling in the first three fingers, especially at night.
What is the treatment for Trigger Finger?
Splinting, MCP injection, and surgical release if necessary.
What does self-determination theory emphasize?
The importance of an internal locus of control and the need to change behavior.
What is a sports hernia?
An abdominal muscle injury close to the groin, not a true hernia.
What are the two types of nociceptive pain?
Somatic (e.g., broken bone) and visceral (e.g., appendicitis).
What is cervical stenosis/myelopathy?
Injury to the spinal cord due to severe compression.
What are the side effects of opioids?
Fatigue, dry mouth, and male hypogonadism.
What condition is diagnosed in the 55-year-old woman with ankle pain and instability?
Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction.
What components should be included in a comprehensive treatment plan for lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders?
Pharmacologic interventions and rehabilitation strategies.
What are the symptoms of the 55-year-old woman with posterior tibial tendon dysfunction?
Gradually worsening pain along the inside of the ankle, feeling of instability, flattened arch, and inability to perform a single heel rise.
What is the purpose of OMT in sacroiliac joint dysfunction?
To restore motion.
What role does rehabilitation play in managing lumbar spine, pelvis, and hip disorders?
It aids in recovery, improves mobility, and strengthens supporting muscles.
What imaging technique can be used alongside a bone scan to find a true hot spot for infection?
White blood cell scan.
What is the diagnosis for the twisting injury described by the 30-year-old woman?
Lisfranc Injury.
What treatment may be necessary for the soccer player if conservative treatments fail?
Arthroscopic debridement.
What is the gold standard for spinal imaging?
MRI, which also assesses soft tissue, blood vessels, and bone edema.
What are common symptoms of hip osteoarthritis?
Function limiting hip pain and leg length discrepancy.
What test is positive in DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis?
Finkelstein test.
What is the Popeye sign associated with?
A distal biceps tendon tear.
What is Olecranon Bursitis commonly referred to as?
Student’s Elbow.
Which anti-convulsant medications are most commonly used off-label for chronic pain?
Gabapentin and Pregabalin.
What are some treatment options for acute vertebral fractures?
Pain control, activity modification, physical therapy, vertebroplasty, and kyphoplasty.
What is the likely diagnosis for a 29-year-old woman with elbow pain after a FOOSH injury and a fracture with less than 1 mm displacement?
Radial Head Fracture.
What diagnostic test is used for stenosis?
CT scan.
What is Medial Epicondylitis commonly known as?
Golfer’s Elbow.
What condition involves pain and locking in a finger with a catching sensation?
Trigger Finger.
What is a common treatment for chronic back pain?
OMT (Osteopathic Manipulative Treatment) targeting peripheral biochemical processes.
What is osteitis pubis?
An inflammatory condition of the pubic symphysis.
Define tolerance in the context of pain management.
Adaptation to exposure of a drug that results in a diminution of drug effect.
What can cause medial plantar nerve entrapment?
Compression of the medial plantar nerve, possibly due to a ganglion cyst.
What imaging techniques are useful for diagnosing medial plantar nerve entrapment?
Weight bearing X-ray, ultrasound (US), and possibly MRI.
What are the symptoms of Medial Epicondylitis?
Pain on the inner elbow and weakness with wrist flexion, exacerbated by gripping or lifting.
What are the symptoms of Cubital Tunnel Syndrome?
Numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th fingers, worsened with prolonged elbow flexion.
What is self-efficacy in the context of pain management?
The belief in one's control over their own life and pain experience.
Who is commonly affected by osteitis pubis?
Athletes.
Which athletes are commonly affected by sports hernia?
Ice hockey and soccer players.
What characterizes neuropathic pain?
It is often described as burning or electric sensations.
What is the next step in treatment for a radial head fracture with minimal displacement?
Conservative management with immobilization and follow-up.
What is hind foot valgus?
A condition where the heel tilts outward, causing the foot to flatten.
What is the suspected diagnosis for a 24-year-old man with wrist pain and tenderness at the anatomical snuffbox after a FOOSH injury?
Scaphoid Fracture.
What does the pain catastrophizing scale measure?
The degree to which individuals think about their pain.
What are the risks associated with anti-inflammatory medications?
GI bleed, renal toxicity, and cardiovascular risks such as heart attack and stroke.
What is a negative straight leg test indicative of?
It suggests that the pain is not originating from the lumbar spine.
What types of medications are effective for neuropathic pain?
Gabapentin, pregabalin, tricyclic antidepressants, and SNRIs.
What is the surgical procedure for a UCL tear?
Tommy John surgery.
How do perspectives of pain affect perceived pain levels?
Expectations and beliefs influence actual perceived pain.
What is the typical treatment for osteitis pubis?
Self-limiting, typically rest for 9 months.
What is addiction in relation to drug use?
A compulsive drug-seeking disorder characterized by loss of control, craving, compulsive behavior, and continued use despite consequences.
What is a common treatment for Lateral Epicondylitis?
Rest, adjusting racket string tension, increasing grip size, shock wave therapy, physical therapy, and possibly dry needling.
What is the recommended treatment for a distal biceps tendon tear?
Surgical repair due to significant loss of strength and function.
What causes Olecranon Bursitis?
Prolonged periods of resting elbows on a desk.
What is PNE implementation?
One-on-one education involving physical therapy, occupational therapy, and screening.
What are pelvic floor disorders?
A group of disorders caused by injury or weakness of the muscles and connective tissue of the pelvic area.
What are the treatment options for DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis?
Rest, physical therapy, PRP injections, and surgical release if conservative measures fail.
What injury is commonly associated with baseball pitchers?
Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL) Tear.
What is the recommended treatment for Olecranon Bursitis?
Avoiding pressure on the elbows and possible aspiration if needed.
What common condition can lead to pelvic floor disorders?
Pregnancy.
What is chronic pain?
Pain that persists longer than acute disease, specifically more than 90 days.
What should be monitored when using anti-inflammatory medications?
Renal function, especially in small amounts of people who may experience renal toxicity.
What is a key benefit of anti-inflammatory medications in chronic pain management?
They have no tolerance or dependence and provide an opioid-sparing effect.
