PDN22_INC_L3_Laboratory_result_analysis_Finalized (1)

A common symptom of respiratory acidosis is ___, which can lead to drowsiness and dizziness.

In respiratory acidosis, the pH of the lungs is ___ while PCO2 is increasing.

Nursing management for respiratory acidosis includes monitoring the client's ___ signs.

For severe respiratory acidosis, ___ may be necessary to assist with breathing.

To address respiratory alkalosis, the primary goal is to slow the ___ rate.

If anxiety is causing respiratory alkalosis, patients may need to be encouraged to ___ their breathing.

In cases of pain-induced rapid breathing, providing ___ can help alleviate the issue.

Breathing into a paper bag helps patients with respiratory alkalosis by allowing them to rebreathe ___, which raises its level in the blood.

To treat metabolic acidosis, it is important to correct the ___ cause.

For a diabetic patient with metabolic acidosis, it is crucial to control blood ___ and ___ levels.

If metabolic acidosis is mild, administering ___ fluid may be sufficient.

In cases of severe metabolic acidosis, ___ bicarbonate may be given.

Metabolic alkalosis often results from an electrolyte ___ that needs to be corrected.

To correct metabolic alkalosis, it is important to replace fluid, ___, and potassium.

Type 1 respiratory failure is characterized by ___ (PaO2 < 8 kPa) and ___ (PaCO2 < 6.0 kPa).

A decrease in WBC can be caused by ___, bone marrow failure, or autoimmune disease.

Coumarin-type drugs, such as ___, cause a decrease in the production of prothrombin and other factors.

The change in the PT takes several days to reach the desired ___.

Serious bleeding or immediate reversal of anticoagulation may be treated with ___ concentrated clotting factors or FFP.

Alanine transaminase (___) is a cytosol enzyme specific to the liver.

Aspartate transaminase (___) is a mitochondrial enzyme present in heart, muscle, kidney, and brain.

ALT and AST are present in hepatocytes and leak into blood with ___ cell damage.

Serological screening tests establish whether liver ___, infection, or obstruction is present.

The reference range for ALT is ___ unit/L.

The reference range for AST is ___ unit/L.

The reference range for ALP is ___ units/L.

Total protein reference range is ___ g/dL.

The reference range for Albumin is ___ g/L.

Globulin reference range is ___ g/L.

Total bilirubin reference range is ___ μmol/L.

The reference range for Direct bilirubin is ___ µmol/L.

Indirect bilirubin reference range is ___ μmol/L.

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is primarily found in the tissues of the ___, bone, intestine, kidneys, and placenta.

Haemolytic anemia is associated with increased levels of ___ bilirubin.

Extensive liver metastasis can lead to increased levels of ___ bilirubin.

Gallstones are a common disorder that can cause increased levels of ___ bilirubin.

Cirrhosis is associated with increased levels of ___ bilirubin.

Renal function tests are used to evaluate the severity of ___ disease.

Renal function tests assess the client's ___ function.

Common tests of renal function include serum creatinine and ___ clearance.

Blood urea nitrogen is a common test of renal function along with serum creatinine and ___ clearance.

The reference range for creatinine (Cr) in males is ___ to ___ µmol/L.

The reference range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is ___ to ___ mmol/L.

The creatinine clearance (CrCl) for females is ___ to ___ ml/min.

The estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) should be greater than ___ ml/min/1.73 m².

Creatinine (Cr) is a catabolic product of ___ phosphate.

Creatinine is excreted entirely by the ___.

An elevation in Cr suggests ___ of the disease process.

A doubling of Cr suggests a ___% reduction in GFR.

The Cr level is interpreted in conjunction with the ___ test.

Abnormal elevation in creatinine may indicate renal disorders such as ___ or acute tubular necrosis.

Slight increases in creatinine level can occur after meals, especially after ingestion of large quantities of ___.

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) measures the amount of ___ in the blood.

Urea is formed in the liver as the end product of ___ metabolism.

BUN is directly related to the metabolic function of the liver and the excretory function of the ___.

Elevated BUN levels indicate a condition known as ___.

Nearly all renal diseases cause inadequate excretion of urea, leading to a rise in blood urea concentration above ___.

BUN is interpreted in conjunction with the ___ test.

Increased levels of renal function tests can be caused by ___ causes, ___ causes, and ___ causes.

One prerenal cause of increased renal function test levels is ___ .

A renal cause of increased renal function test levels is ___ .

The CrCl test requires a ___-hour urine collection and serum Cr level.

The 24-hour urine collection is considered too ___ and expensive for routine clinical use.

GFR can be estimated (eGFR) using serum Cr, age, and numbers that vary depending on ___ and ___.

Increased levels of CrCl can be caused by ___ and ___.

Decreased levels of CrCl may indicate ___ kidney function, such as renal artery atherosclerosis or glomerulonephritis.

Conditions causing decreased GFR include congestive heart failure and ___ with ascites.

High cardiac output syndromes, such as ___, can lead to increased levels of CrCl.

Electrolytes assist with the regulation of ___ balance.

Electrolytes are essential for ___ activity.

One of the functions of electrolytes is to regulate and maintain ___ balance.

Common electrolytes include Na+, Cl-, and ___.

___ is listed as a common electrolyte along with Potassium, Phosphates, and Proteins.

A common symptom of hypokalemia includes ___ and vomiting.

In hypokalemia, the ECG may show ___ T waves.

Hypokalemia can result in ___ as a sign of low blood pressure.

Muscle weakness in hypokalemia can be associated with ___ cramps.

Headache can be a symptom of ___ .

Anorexia can be a sign of ___ .

Calcium (Ca2+) is essential for ___ nerve impulse transmission.

Calcium helps regulate ___ contraction and relaxation, including cardiac muscle.

Calcium is instrumental in activating enzymes that stimulate many essential ___ reactions in the body.

Calcium plays a role in ___ coagulation.

Hypoparathyroidism is a condition that can lead to ___ .

One of the symptoms of hypocalcemia is ___ .

Prolonged ___ interval is an ECG finding in hypocalcemia.

Massive transfusion of citrated blood can lead to ___ .

Generalized peritonitis can cause ___ .

Diuretic phase of kidney injury may result in ___ .

Bronchospasm can be a sign of ___ .

Phosphorous is the primary anion of the ___.

Phosphorous is essential for the formation of ___ and 2,3-diphosphoglycerate.

Phosphorous helps maintain ___ balance, the nervous system, and intermediary metabolism.

Phosphorous provides structural support to ___ and ___.

Hyperphosphatemia can be caused by ___ kidney injury and chronic kidney disease.

One of the signs of hyperphosphatemia is ___, which is characterized by muscle spasms.

Excessive intake of phosphorus and ___ can lead to hyperphosphatemia.

A symptom of hyperphosphatemia includes ___ and vomiting.

In hyperphosphatemia, muscle weakness can occur due to ___ levels of calcium.

Soft tissue calcifications in the lungs, heart, kidneys, and cornea can be a sign of ___ .

Signs and symptoms of hypophosphatemia include ___ and ___.

One cause of hypophosphatemia is ___ withdrawal.

Refeeding syndrome after starvation consumes ___ .

A symptom of hypophosphatemia can be ___ pain and tenderness.

Hypophosphatemia can lead to ___ failure.

Diabetic ketoacidosis is a condition that can cause ___ .

Signs of hypophosphatemia may include ___ and confusion.

Malabsorption can lead to ___ .

Hyperparathyroidism is associated with ___ .

A sign of hypophosphatemia is ___ .

When interpreting serum electrolyte reports, it is important to note that the laboratory report reflects only ___ levels.

The level of electrolytes in the serum is very close to electrolytes in the ___ fluid.

Radiology uses ___ technology to diagnose and treat disease.

Diagnostic radiology allows us to see ___ inside your body.

Using imaging, a radiologist can diagnose the cause of your ___ .

Radiology can monitor how well your body is responding to a ___.

One of the illnesses that can be screened for using radiology is ___ cancer.

Radiology can also screen for ___ disease.

X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation that can ___ the human body.

X-rays are absorbed by materials in differing amounts based on their ___ and ___.

Bone absorbs X-rays well due to its ___ density.

Soft tissue has a ___ density, thus absorbs fewer X-rays.

A ___ image is produced from X-ray imaging.

To determine the projection of a chest X-ray, check the position of the ___ and ___.

If the scapulae overlie the lung field, the film is ___ projection.

If the scapulae do not overlie the lung field, the film is ___ projection.

When checking orientation on a chest x-ray, do not assume the heart is always on the ___.

To identify rotation in a chest x-ray, the medial ends of the clavicles should be equidistant from the ___ process.

If one clavicle is nearer than the other on a chest x-ray, the patient is ___.

In assessing a chest x-ray, the medial ends of the clavicles should be aligned with the ___ of the vertebral column.

In a chest X-ray, the vertebral bodies should only be visible through the ___ shadow at the lower part of the cardia.

The degree of inspiration is determined by counting the number of ribs ___ the diagram.

The midpoint of the right hemidiaphragm should be between the ___ and ___ ribs anteriorly.

The cardiothoracic ratio (CTR) should be between ___ and ___.

The maximum diameter of the heart is less than half of the ___ diameter.

Any abnormally dense areas of the transthoracic shadow may indicate ___ issues.

The most common cause of gas under the diaphragm is ___ perforation.

The chest X-ray shows the lungs appearing mostly clear with some possible ___ in the lower regions.

The X-ray indicates that the mediastinum appears normal in ___.

A possible ___ tube is visible running down the esophagus in the chest X-ray.

The ECG cable is shown coming from the patient's right shoulder across the chest and is highlighted in ___.

The findings on the X-ray indicate that the penetration is ___.

The X-ray identifies a foreign body, including an ET tube about the ___.

The X-ray is labeled as ___ on the right side of the chest.

The X-ray is taken in the ___ view.

The right internal jugular central line is noted as a foreign body in the chest X-ray along with the ___ cable.

A CT scan is a ___, noninvasive x-ray procedure.

CT scans have a unique capability of distinguishing minor differences in the ___ of tissue.

During a CT scan examination, the detectors are both ___ around the body.

CT scans can acquire ___ images.

A CT scan provides a ___ image of an organ or structure.

MRI uses powerful magnets and ___ waves to create pictures of the body.

MRI is considered ___ because it does not use radiation.

MRI provides better contrast between normal and abnormal tissue than ___ scan.

Angiograms can be used to assess the arteries of the ___, heart, lung, kidneys, or lower extremities.

An EEG is a test used to measure the ___ activity of the brain.

EEG is useful in diagnosing ___ disorders.

One of the conditions evaluated by EEG is ___ syndrome.

EEG can help in the determination of ___ death.

During normal sleep, brainwaves are relatively ___ and have a lower amplitude.

Brainwaves during an absence seizure are characterized by ___ spikes and increased amplitude.

The brain activity during an absence seizure is described as ___ compared to normal sleep.

To determine respiratory status, one must assess pH, PaCO₂, and ___.

The kidneys can regulate the pH by excreting ___ and controlling serum bicarbonate through reabsorption.

It takes the kidneys ___ days to restore the pH to normal.

To determine metabolic acid-base balance, one must assess pH, PaCO2, HCO3, and ___.

In metabolic alkalosis, the pH is ___ and HCO3- is ___.

In metabolic acidosis, the pH is ___ and HCO3- is ___.

An example of metabolic alkalosis is when the pH is ___ and HCO3- is ___.

An example of metabolic acidosis is when the pH is ___ and HCO3- is ___.

A negative base excess (BE) indicates ___ acidosis.

A positive base excess (BE) indicates ___ alkalosis.

Base excess (BE) reflects the number of ___ available in the blood to help buffer changes in pH.

If the pH value is less than ___, it indicates acidosis.

If the pH value is greater than ___, it indicates alkalosis.

In primary respiratory causes, pH and PCO2 move in ___ directions.

In primary metabolic causes, pH and HCO3- move in ___ direction.

One type of acid-base imbalance is ___ acidosis.

One type of acid-base imbalance is ___ alkalosis.

One type of acid-base imbalance is ___ acidosis.

One type of acid-base imbalance is ___ alkalosis.

Respiratory acidosis is characterized by the accumulation of ___ in the body.

The accumulation of CO2 leads to the production of ___ acid.

Clinical manifestations of respiratory acidosis include ___ respiration, decreased BP, and skin/mucosa that is pale to cyanotic.

Lung compensation occurs for ___ causes.

To treat respiratory acidosis, it is important to improve ___.

In cases of respiratory acidosis, administering ___ can help improve breathing.

The reference value for Lymphocytes is ___ x 10^9/L.

The reference value for Platelets in adults is ___ x 10^9/L.

An increase in Hb may indicate ___, congenital heart disease, or severe dehydration.

A decreased level of aPTT may occur in the early stage of ___.

Extensive cancer can lead to a ___ level of aPTT.

An aPTT greater than ___ seconds indicates that too much heparin is being given.

The effect of heparin can be reversed by ___ sulfate.

Heparin's effect is immediate and ___ lived, unlike that of warfarin.

Heparin prevents intravascular clotting during ___ of the vessels.

If the PT is greatly prolonged, evaluate the patient for ___ tendencies.

Common disorders for prolonged PT include ___ disease.

A common disorder for prolonged PT is ___ biliary disease.

Hereditary factor deficiency can include Factors ___, ___, ___ or ___.

A deficiency in ___ can lead to prolonged PT.

___ is a condition that can cause prolonged PT.

Massive ___ transfusion can result in prolonged PT.

Decreased muscle mass will result in ___ CrCl values.

If more CO₂ is retained, it leads to more carbonic acid and shifts toward ___.

Hyperventilation results in less carbonic acid and shifts toward ___.

The lungs can shift the pH of the blood within a few ___.

Upon completion of the lecture, students will be able to analyse the value of laboratory data including ___, CBC, Coagulation test, Liver function test, Renal function test, and common measured electrolytes.

Students will understand the basic principle of interpretation of ___ X-ray.

Students will describe the basic principle of common ___ tests.

Judging the value of laboratory data requires assessing the ___ of the test and the contextual ___.

A sudden change in laboratory values is of greatest concern when there is a ___ in the patient's condition.

Clients may exhibit more symptoms with an abruptly changed result compared to those with a ___ change in data due to the body's adaptation.

When judging the value of laboratory results, one must consider the ___ that may affect the results.

Clients with abnormal laboratory results may exhibit a ___ of symptoms that can provide insight into their condition.

Other assessment data that suggest a changed laboratory result may include ___ and ___ findings.

Factors that may change patterns in laboratory results include ___, ___, and ___ changes.

Blood gas analysis is used to evaluate ___ function.

Blood gas analysis provides a measure to determine - balance.

The integration of respiratory, renal, and cardiovascular system functions is essential to maintain normal - balance.

Different types of blood gases include Arterial blood gases (ABG), venous blood gases (VBG), capillary blood gases, and ___ blood gases.

Abnormal blood gas findings can indicate a ___ or ___ disorder.

A postrenal cause of increased renal function test levels is ___ .

___ is a prerenal cause that can lead to increased renal function test levels.

___ is a prerenal cause associated with increased renal function test levels due to fluid loss.

___ is a prerenal cause that can lead to increased renal function test levels due to insufficient blood volume.

___ is a prerenal cause that can lead to increased renal function test levels due to heart issues.

___ is a prerenal cause that can lead to increased renal function test levels due to infection.

___ is a renal cause that can lead to increased renal function test levels due to medication effects.

___ is a postrenal cause that can lead to increased renal function test levels due to blockage in the urinary tract.

CrCl is a measure of the ___ of the kidney.

The ability of the nephron to act as a filter affects the ___ of CrCl.

When one kidney becomes diseased, the other kidney can compensate by increasing its ___ rate.

Angiograms are indicated for the diagnosis of ___, stenosis, emboli, thrombosis, aneurysms, tumors, congenital malformation, or trauma.

Monitoring the client's ___ is essential to assess the impact of metabolic acidosis on their health.

Excessive acid loss in metabolic alkalosis can occur due to ___ vomiting.

In metabolic alkalosis, bicarbonate retention leads to an increase in ___ levels.

Clinical manifestations of metabolic alkalosis include ___, lethargy, and confusion.

A common symptom of metabolic alkalosis is ___, which can lead to muscle cramps and tingling of fingers and toes.

In metabolic alkalosis, the pH level is typically ___, indicating alkalosis.

Nursing management for metabolic alkalosis includes monitoring the client's ___ signs.

It is important to monitor the client's ___ status in cases of metabolic alkalosis.

Monitoring the client's ___ intake and output is crucial in managing metabolic alkalosis.

In metabolic alkalosis, the heart rate may be affected, leading to potential ___.

Nursing management for metabolic alkalosis includes assessing motor function and sensation in the ___ .

Laboratory results should be monitored and reported ___ in cases of metabolic alkalosis.

Administering medications and intravenous fluid as prescribed is part of the nursing management for ___ .

An increase in pH indicates a condition that is ___ and can be caused by disorders such as alkali ingestion and vomiting.

A decrease in pH indicates a condition that is ___ and is associated with disorders like asthma and cardiac disease.

An increase in PCO2 can be seen in conditions such as late-stage asthma and ___ disorders.

A decrease in PCO2 may occur in early-stage asthma and ___ due to hyperventilation.

An increase in PO2 is often a result of ___ and hyperbaric oxygen exposure.

A decrease in PO2 can be associated with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and ___ disorders.

In cases of metabolic acidosis, the primary problem is a ___ in HCO3.

For metabolic acidosis, the compensation observed is a ___ in PaCO2.

In metabolic alkalosis, the primary problem is an ___ in HCO3.

For metabolic alkalosis, the compensation observed is an ___ in PaCO2.

In respiratory acidosis, the primary problem is an ___ in PaCO2.

For respiratory acidosis, the compensation observed is an ___ in [HCO3].

In respiratory alkalosis, the primary problem is a ___ in PaCO2.

For respiratory alkalosis, the compensation observed is a ___ in [HCO3].

Renal compensation occurs for ___ causes.

The Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) test assesses the ability of the lung to provide adequate ___ and remove ___, which reflects ventilation.

The ABG test evaluates the ability of the kidneys to absorb or excrete ___ ions to maintain normal body ___.

The purpose of arterial blood gas analysis includes assessing ___ balance.

Arterial blood gases are used to evaluate the ___ status.

One of the purposes of arterial blood gas analysis is to identify abnormalities of ___.

Venous Blood Gas (VBG) provides data on ___ delivery and ___ consumption.

VBG reflects the balance between the amount of oxygen used by tissues and organs and the amount of oxygen returning to the ___ side of the heart in the blood.

VBG is recommended to guide goal-directed therapy in postoperative patients at risk for ___ instability.

Using VBG may decrease ___ and ___ in patients with septic shock.

VBG can help identify ___ hypoxia in patients.

The pH in blood gas analysis measures the concentration of ___ ion.

PaCO2 represents the partial pressure of ___ in the blood.

PaO2 indicates the partial pressure of ___ in the blood.

HCO3 is a ___ value in blood gas analysis.

Base excess (BE) measures the amount of acid/base needed to titrate plasma pH back to ___.

HCO3 is the main buffer in ___ fluid.

Base excess reflects the metabolic capacity of bases such as HCO3 and ___ in blood gas analysis.

The actual HCO3 value is affected by ___ and respiratory conditions.

Base excess indicates the net excess or deficit of ___.

The normal pH range for arterial blood is ___ to ___.

The PCO2 level in arterial blood should be between ___ and ___ kPa.

The normal PO2 range for venous blood is ___ to ___ kPa.

HCO3- levels in arterial blood typically range from ___ to ___ mmol/L.

The base excess (BE) in arterial blood is typically between ___ to ___ mmol/L.

O2 saturation in arterial blood should be between ___% and ___%.

Every organ system relies on ___ balance.

The two main modulators of pH balance are the ___ system and ___ system.

The pulmonary system adjusts pH by ___ dioxide.

The renal system affects pH by reabsorbing ___ and excreting acids.

The main buffer system in the body is the ___ – ___ acid system.

The reaction involving carbonic acid and bicarbonate is represented as ___ + ___ ↔ H₂CO₃ ↔ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻.

The enzyme that facilitates the acid-base balance mechanism is ___ anhydrase.

The level of PaCO₂ is primarily controlled by the ___.

During exhalation, carbon dioxide is exhaled into the ___.

Signs of respiratory distress to observe include restlessness, anxiety, confusion, and ___.

To assist a patient with ventilation in respiratory acidosis, it is important to elevate the head of the bed in ___ position if no contraindication.

In respiratory acidosis, the patient may experience muscle weakness and ___.

In respiratory acidosis, the HCO3 level is typically indicated as ___.

In respiratory alkalosis, excessive ___ is blown off due to hyperventilation.

A clinical manifestation of respiratory alkalosis includes ___ of extremities.

In respiratory alkalosis, the rate and depth of breathing are ___ (increased/decreased).

One of the nursing management strategies for respiratory alkalosis is to encourage the client to breathe ___.

In respiratory alkalosis, the PaCO2 level is typically ___ (increased/decreased).

A common symptom of respiratory alkalosis is ___, which can lead to muscle cramping and seizures.

The pH level in respiratory alkalosis is typically ___ (normal/increased).

Nursing management for respiratory alkalosis includes monitoring the client's ___ signs.

In respiratory alkalosis, the HCO3 level is typically ___ (normal/increased).

A patient with respiratory alkalosis may experience ___ due to hyperventilation.

Tissue hypoperfusion produces ___ acid in metabolic acidosis.

Common clinical manifestation of metabolic acidosis includes ___ and ___ near the stomach.

In severe acidosis, the body may exhibit ___ respirations as a compensatory mechanism.

Monitoring the client's ___ status is crucial in managing metabolic acidosis.

In metabolic acidosis, the pH level is expected to be ___ according to ABG values.

The nursing management for metabolic acidosis includes monitoring the client's ___ and output.

Deep and laborious respiratory compensation is a response to ___ in metabolic acidosis.

In metabolic acidosis, the HCO3 level is expected to show a ___ trend.

The presence of ___ is common in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), leading to metabolic acidosis.

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a more sensitive version of the PTT and is used to monitor the patient's response to ___ therapy.

The International Normalized Ratio (___) is the patient's prothrombin time (PT) ratio and the normal mean PT time raised to the power of the international sensitivity index.

The INR is a measure of the sensitivity of the specific tissue factor used in the test, as compared with a ___ standard.

INR is the preferred reporting to monitor patients on ___ antagonist therapy.

The reference value for aPTT is ___ seconds.

The reference value for PT is ___ seconds.

The reference value for INR is ___ to ___.

Increased levels of aPTT can indicate ___ factor deficiencies, such as von Willebrand disease.

Cirrhosis of the liver can lead to an ___ level of aPTT.

Vitamin K deficiency is associated with an ___ level of aPTT.

Heparin administration can result in ___ levels of aPTT.

Type 1 respiratory failure occurs due to ___ mismatch, where the volume of air flowing in and out of the lungs is not matched with the flow of blood to the lung tissue.

In Type 1 respiratory failure, the rise in PaCO2 triggers an increase in a patient's overall ___ ventilation.

Type 2 respiratory failure is characterized by ___ (PaO2 < 8 kPa) and ___ (PaCO2 > 6.0 kPa).

Type 2 respiratory failure occurs due to ___ hypoventilation, which affects oxygenation and CO2 elimination.

Increased resistance from airway obstruction, such as ___, can lead to hypoventilation in Type 2 respiratory failure.

Reduced compliance of lung tissue can be caused by conditions like ___ or rib fractures.

A condition that can reduce the strength of respiratory muscles, contributing to Type 2 respiratory failure, is ___ disease.

Drugs that act on the respiratory center, such as ___, can reduce overall ventilation and lead to Type 2 respiratory failure.

Haematology is the study of ___ and ___ in health and in disease.

The most common tests used in haematology are the complete blood count (CBC), the ___, and ___ profile.

The WBC test in a CBC is used to help diagnose ___, certain cancers of the blood, and inflammatory diseases.

The RBC test in a CBC is used to watch for ___ and infection.

The platelet count in a CBC is used to diagnose or to watch certain types of ___ and clotting disorders.

The PT test in a clotting profile is used to evaluate ___ and clotting disorders.

The PTT test in a clotting profile is used to watch ___ therapies.

The INR is used in conjunction with PT and PTT to monitor ___ therapies.

The CBC identifies the total number of blood ___, WBC and Platelets (Plt), Haemoglobin (Hb), and Haematocrit (Hct).

RBCs are filled with ___, which has a strong affinity for oxygen.

The composition of blood includes ___% plasma, ___% white blood cells and platelets, and ___% red blood cells.

WBC counts involve the numerical reporting of the total number of ___.

The WBC differential cell count describes and classifies the white cell components including ___, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils.

Eosinophils are associated with ___ mechanisms.

Basophils contain ___ and ___.

Monocytes are primarily involved in ___.

Lymphocytes are responsible for the secretion of ___.

The reference value for Hemoglobin (Hb) in males is ___ g/dL.

The reference value for Hemoglobin (Hb) in females is ___ g/dL.

The reference value for White Blood Cells (WBC) in adults is ___ x 10^9/L.

The reference value for Neutrophils is ___ x 10^9/L.

The reference value for Eosinophils is ___ x 10^9/L.

The reference value for Basophils is ___ x 10^9/L.

The reference value for Monocytes is ___ x 10^9/L.

An increase in Platelet count may be associated with ___ tumors or a temporary increase after splenectomy.

Possible disorders associated with a decrease in Hb include anemia, cirrhosis, and ___ disease.

Increased WBC count can be a sign of ___, leukemic neoplasia, or trauma.

A decrease in Platelet count can occur after viral infections, AIDS, or ___ disorders.

Severe dehydration can lead to an increase in ___ levels.

Bone marrow failure may result in a decrease in both ___ and WBC counts.

Trauma can cause an increase in ___ count.

Taking heparin may lead to a decrease in ___ count.

An increase in neutrophils may indicate a ___ infection or ___.

A decrease in neutrophils can be associated with ___ diseases such as Hepatitis or ___.

An increase in basophils is often linked to ___.

A decrease in basophils may result from ___ therapy or an ___ reaction.

Eosinophils increase in response to ___ reactions or ___ infestations.

A decrease in eosinophils can be caused by ___ therapy.

An increase in lymphocytes is commonly seen in ___ infections or chronic ___ infections.

A decrease in lymphocytes can be indicative of ___ infection, particularly affecting the CD4 count.

Monocytes may increase due to chronic ___ disease or ___.

A decrease in monocytes can occur due to injuries or infections such as ___ virus.

Coagulation tests are used to determine why a patient is ___, ___, or forming clots abnormally.

Prothrombin time (PT) measures the clotting ability of factors ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___.

Partial thromboplastin time (PPT) is a nonspecific test that demonstrates a lack of any of the various clotting factors except factor ___.

One cause of hypercalcemia is ___ disease.

A symptom of hypercalcemia includes ___ weakness.

Prolonged immobilization can lead to ___ levels of calcium in the blood.

Overuse of calcium supplements can result in ___.

A symptom of hypercalcemia is ___ and vomiting.

In hypercalcemia, patients may experience ___ deep tendon reflexes.

Lethargy is a sign of ___ levels of calcium in the blood.

Deep bone pain can be a symptom of ___ disease.

ECG changes in hypercalcemia may include a shortened ST segment and ___ interval.

Bradycardia and heart block can occur in patients with ___ levels of calcium.

Hypocalcemia can be caused by ___ deficiency.

A sign of hypocalcemia includes ___ of fingers, toes, and circumoral region.

A positive ___ sign is associated with hypocalcemia.

The highest concentrations of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) are found in the liver, biliary tract epithelium, and ___.

Extra- and intrahepatic cholestasis can occur with or without raised ___.

The highest levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) result from primary biliary cirrhosis and hepatic ___.

Total protein in liver function tests measures ___ and ___.

Albumin helps maintain ___ osmotic pressure.

Globulin is classified into ___, ___, and ___.

One of the functions of albumin is to transport important blood constituents such as ___, ___, and ___.

Globulin helps fight ___ and move nutrients throughout the body.

Total protein is an important measure of ___.

A low total protein level may indicate ___ disease.

Malnutrition can lead to ___ total protein levels.

High total protein levels may be associated with ___ myeloma.

Celiac disease is an example of a condition that can cause ___ total protein levels.

An infection such as ___ can result in high total protein levels.

___ disease is a potential cause of low total protein levels due to malabsorption.

There are ___ forms of bilirubin: prehepatic bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin.

Prehepatic bilirubin is also known as ___ bilirubin.

Bilirubin metabolism starts with the breakdown of ___ in the reticuloendothelial system.

Hemoglobin is released from RBCs and broken down into ___ and ___ molecules.

Heme is catabolized to form biliverdin and then transforms into ___ bilirubin.

In the liver, indirect bilirubin is conjugated with a ___, resulting in conjugated bilirubin.

Conjugated bilirubin is excreted from the liver cells into the ___ ducts.

After conjugation in the liver, bilirubin is transformed into ___ bilirubin.

Indirect bilirubin travels to the liver where it conjugates with glucuronide to form ___ bilirubin.

The final product of bilirubin metabolism is urobilinogen, which is excreted through ___ and ___.

Increased levels of conjugated (direct) bilirubin can be caused by ___, extrahepatic duct obstruction, and extensive liver metastasis.

Common disorders associated with increased levels of unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin include ___ disease of the newborn and haemolytic jaundice.

A condition that can lead to increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin is ___-volume blood transfusion.

Increased levels of conjugated bilirubin can result from ___ from drugs.

One of the causes of increased unconjugated bilirubin is ___; it can also be seen in cases of sepsis.

Neonatal ___ is a common disorder associated with increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin.

Major electrolytes in the intracellular fluid (ICF) are ___ and ___.

The body expends a great deal of energy maintaining the high extracellular concentration of ___.

More than 99% of the body calcium (Ca2+) is located in the ___; a small amount of Ca2+ is located outside in the serum.

Laboratories may report phosphorus level as ___ or ___ level.

P is mainly an intracellular ___.

The reference range for potassium is ___ to ___ mmol/L.

Sodium levels should be between ___ and ___ mmol/L.

The normal range for calcium is ___ to ___ mmol/L.

Phosphate reference values range from ___ to ___ mmol/L.

Potassium (K+) is a major ___ within the cell.

Potassium (K+) is important to ___ function.

Routine evaluations of potassium levels are important for patients taking ___ or heart medication.

Potassium has a profound effect on heart rate and ___.

Minor changes in potassium concentration can have ___ consequences.

IV potassium is infused at a ___ rate to prevent irritation to the vein.

Serum K+ levels are affected by - balance.

In alkalotic states, potassium (K+) levels are ___ .

In acidotic states, potassium (K+) levels are ___.

Hyperkalaemia can be caused by ___ or chronic renal failure.

One of the causes of hyperkalaemia is ___ injury to tissue.

Aldosterone-inhibiting diuretics, such as ___, can lead to hyperkalaemia.

During acidosis, H+ are driven from the blood into the cell, causing K+ to be expelled from the ___.

In dehydration, K+ becomes more ___ in the bloodstream.

A common sign of hyperkalaemia is ___ weakness.

Tachycardia can progress to ___ in hyperkalaemia.

Tall T waves in an ECG indicate possible ___ levels.

One symptom of hyperkalaemia is ___ paralysis.

Anxiety can be a sign of ___ levels in the body.

ECG changes in hyperkalaemia may include prolonged PR interval and ___ duration.

Ventricular dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest can occur due to ___ levels of potassium.

Hypokalemia can be caused by ___, which leads to increased potassium excretion.

One of the signs of hypokalemia is ___, which can lead to muscle weakness.

One of the causes of hypokalemia is the administration of ___, which can lead to potassium loss.

In hypokalemia, the presence of prominent ___ waves can be observed on an ECG.

Hypokalemia can be caused by ___ administration, which affects potassium levels.

A decrease in renal blood flow due to ascites stimulates the secretion of ___, increasing potassium excretion.

Sodium (Na+) is the major ___ in the extracellular space.

Sodium salts are the major determinants of extracellular ___.

An increase in serum Na+ pulls water into the vascular system from the ___ space and the ___.

Physiologically, water and sodium are closely ___.

An increase in free body water leads to a dilution of serum Na+ and a ___ concentration.

When free body water decreases, serum Na+ concentration ___.

The kidney compensates for increased serum Na+ concentration by conserving free ___.

A rise in serum Na+ level above normal indicates a serious deficit of ___.

Hypernatremia can occur due to ___ at high quantities of salt without adequate free water.

One sign of hypernatremia is ___, which indicates a lack of adequate hydration.

A symptom of hypernatremia includes a ___ body temperature.

Hypernatremia may lead to a ___ dry tongue and sticky mucous membranes.

One of the signs of hypernatremia is ___, which can indicate severe neurological effects.

A common symptom of hypernatremia is ___, which can affect the patient's alertness.

Restlessness can be a sign of ___ in patients with hypernatremia.

Tonic-clonic seizures can occur as a severe symptom of ___.

Nausea and vomiting are symptoms associated with ___.

Hyponatremia can be caused by ___ diet Na+ intake.

A sign of hyponatremia includes ___ skin.

Diarrhoea and ___ can lead to hyponatremia.

Administration of ___ can cause hyponatremia.

Large-volume aspiration of pleural or peritoneal fluid can lead to ___ .

Excessive oral water intake is a cause of ___ .

Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-diuretic hormone (SIADH) is associated with ___ .

A symptom of hyponatremia is ___ and vomiting.

___ is a sign of hyponatremia that indicates a possible neurological issue.

Muscle cramps and ___ can occur due to hyponatremia.

A severe symptom of hyponatremia can be ___.

___ is a common symptom of hyponatremia that can affect daily activities.

Dizziness can be a sign of ___ .

Soft-tissue structures such as the heart and liver are more likely to be accurately characterized by MRI than other ___ methods.

Implanted metal devices, like a ___, cannot undergo MRI due to the strong magnetic field.

Transdermal patches containing foil should be ___ before undergoing MRI to prevent injury.

MRI provides ___ images of the body.

Ultrasonograms use high-frequency sound waves to create images of ___ and ___.

The echoes produced during an ultrasonogram are used by the computer to create ___.

Contrast medium studies use ___ or ___ materials to improve visibility of internal structures.

Contrast materials help to ___, ___, or ___ parts of the body for clearer imaging.

Contrast material can be administered by mouth, as an enema, as an injection, or through a ___.

Images from contrast medium studies can be captured on x-ray film or by a ___.

In a T1 MRI without contrast, the lesion appears ___ compared to the surrounding brain tissue.

After the administration of contrast in a T1 MRI, the lesion appears ___ and more defined.

The brain scans compare a T1 MRI with and without ___ for detecting lesions.

The images illustrate a single brain metastasis from ___ cancer.

A ___ dye is injected into the blood vessels during an angiogram.

Fluoroscopy and ___ are used to assess the flow through the vessels in an angiogram.