What protein does Romosozumab inhibit?
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Sclerostin.
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What protein does Romosozumab inhibit?
Sclerostin.
What enzyme converts testosterone into Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)?
5 α reductase.
What are the uses of somatostatin?
Somatostatin is used for acromegaly, secretory diarrhea, oesophageal varices, and islet cell tumors.
What happens to anterior pituitary hormone levels if there is a loss of connection between the pituitary and hypothalamus?
All anterior pituitary hormone levels will decrease, but prolactin levels will increase.
What hormones control the anterior pituitary gland?
The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary hormones through releasing and inhibiting hormones.
What is the role of Growth Hormone Inhibiting Hormone (GHIH)?
GHIH decreases the levels of Growth Hormone (GH).
What is the difference between somatostatin and octreotide?
Somatostatin is short-acting, while octreotide is a long-acting somatostatin derivative used instead of somatostatin.
Why can't peptides be given orally?
Peptides cannot be given orally because they are broken down in the digestive system.
What is the significance of the suffix 'tide' in drug names?
Any drug ending with 'tide' is a peptide.
What is the role of prolactin in the anterior pituitary?
Prolactin is under only inhibitory control because there is no releasing hormone for prolactin.
What hormone is also known as Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)?
Dopamine (DA)
What effect does dopamine have on serum prolactin levels?
It decreases serum prolactin levels.
What are two examples of dopamine D2 agonists used to decrease prolactin?
Bromocriptine and Cabergoline.
What is the main side effect of Pegvisomant?
Visual problems.
What is the role of prolactin in lactation?
Prolactin is a milk secreting hormone.
How does pulsatile administration of Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) affect gonadotropins?
It increases gonadotropins.
What is the effect of continuous administration of GnRH on estrogen levels?
It decreases estrogen levels.
What is one use of bromocriptine in diabetes management?
It is used for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
What injectable drugs are used for the treatment of acromegaly?
Pegvisomant and Octreotide.
What is the effect of dopamine agonists on hyperprolactinemia?
They can be used to treat hyperprolactinemia by decreasing prolactin levels.
What are the indications for GnRH in a pulsatile manner?
What are the indications for GnRH in a continuous fashion?
What is a common side effect of GnRH agonists when given continuously?
Flare up Reaction, where there is an aggravation of disease for the initial few days.
What is the main function of Oxytocin?
To contract the uterus, and it is the drug of choice for augmentation of labor and postpartum hemorrhage.
What is the role of Vasopressin?
Also known as anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), it helps regulate water balance in the body.
What is the recently approved oral GnRH antagonist and its indication?
ELAGOLIX, approved for pain due to Endometriosis.
What is the primary agonist for the V1 vasopressin receptor and its clinical use?
Terlipressin, which is the drug of choice for esophageal varices.
What is the primary agonist for the V2 vasopressin receptor and its clinical use?
Desmopressin, which is the drug of choice for neurogenic diabetes insipidus.
What are the two types of diabetes insipidus?
Neurogenic DI (Central DI) and Nephrogenic DI (Peripheral DI).
What is the cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus?
Deficiency of ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone).
What is the drug of choice for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
Thiazides.
What are vaptans and their clinical uses?
Vaptans are vasopressin antagonists used for congestive heart failure and SIADH.
What is the function of ADH in the body?
To retain only water.
What is the stepwise management for SIADH?
What condition is caused by excessive ADH secretion?
Hyponatremia due to increased water retention.
What hormones are secreted by the thyroid gland?
T3, T4, and Calcitonin.
What is the role of TSH in thyroid hormone production?
TSH is secreted by the pituitary and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce T3 and T4.
How does iodide enter the thyroid follicle cells?
Iodide enters through a Na+ I- symporter.
What happens to iodide once it enters the thyroid follicle?
Iodide is converted to iodine and then undergoes oxidation and organification with tyrosine to form MIT and DIT.
What are MIT and DIT in the context of thyroid hormone synthesis?
MIT (Monoiodotyrosine) and DIT (Diiodotyrosine) are products formed during the organification of iodide with tyrosine.
What is the final product of the coupling process in thyroid hormone synthesis?
The final products are T3 and T4.
What happens to T4 after it is produced in the thyroid gland?
T4 is converted to T3 in peripheral tissues.
What are the three reactions catalyzed by Thyroid peroxidase?
The specific reactions are not detailed, but they involve the synthesis of T3 and T4 hormones.
What is the role of TSH in thyroid hormone release?
TSH stimulates the release of T3 and T4 from the thyroid gland.
What is the difference in activity and quantity between T3 and T4 in the blood?
T3 is more active but less in quantity, while T4 is abundant but less active.
What is the primary function of T4 5'-Deiodinase?
It converts T4 to the more active T3 in peripheral tissues.
What is the drug of choice (DOC) for hypothyroidism?
L-THYROXINE (T4) is the DOC for hypothyroidism.
What is the only indication for using Liothyronine (T3)?
It is indicated for myxedema coma (emergency).
What are some characteristic symptoms of hyperthyroidism?
Heat intolerance, weight loss, and sympathetic features.
What types of drugs are used to manage hyperthyroidism?
NIS inhibitors, thyroid peroxidase inhibitors, secretion inhibitors, peripheral conversion inhibitors, thyroid destroying drugs, and adjuvant drugs.
Why are NIS inhibitors not used clinically?
They are considered toxic.
What is a natural source of Thiocyanate that acts as a goitrogen?
Cabbage is a rich source of Thiocyanate.
What are the two main types of Thyroid Peroxidase Inhibitors (Thioamides)?
Carbimazole and Propyl Thiouracil (PTU).
Which Thioamide is more potent and has a longer plasma half-life?
Carbimazole (Methimazole is the active form).
What is the drug of choice (DOC) for hyperthyroidism in the first trimester of pregnancy?
Propyl Thiouracil (PTU).
What congenital malformations can Thioamides cause when used in pregnancy?
Choanal atresia and aplasia cutis.
What is the action time for Thioamides?
3-4 weeks.
What are the fastest acting anti-thyroid drugs?
Nal, KI, and Lugol's Iodine.
What is the purpose of administering Lugol's Iodine preoperatively?
To make the gland small, firm, and less vascular to reduce blood loss during surgery.
What are the peripheral conversion inhibitors mentioned?
Propranolol, PTU, and Prednisolone.
What is a contraindication for using radioactive iodine (I¹³¹)?
Pregnancy and in young individuals under 35 years.
What is the life-saving drug in a thyroid storm?
Propranolol.
What is the drug of choice for antithyroid treatment in a thyroid storm?
Propylthiouracil (PTU).
What is the drug of choice for treating hyperthyroidism in the first trimester of pregnancy?
Propylthiouracil
Which medications are used for hyperthyroidism in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy?
Carbimazole/Methimazole
What is the recommended treatment for hyperthyroidism in a trimester not mentioned?
Propylthiouracil
What hormone do α cells secrete and what is its primary action?
α cells secrete Glucagon, which increases blood sugar levels.
What is the primary use of Insulin?
Insulin is primarily used to lower blood sugar levels in diabetes mellitus.
What is the mechanism of action of Glucagon in treating hypoglycemia?
Glucagon acts by promoting glycogenolysis.
In which condition is Glucagon considered the drug of choice?
Glucagon is the drug of choice in β-blocker poisoning.
What are the indications for using Insulin?
Indications include type 1 diabetes mellitus, uncontrolled type 2 diabetes, diabetes in pregnancy, diabetic ketoacidosis, and acute hyperkalemia.
How does Insulin help in acute hyperkalemia?
Insulin helps in the intracellular movement of K+, moving potassium from blood into cells.
What is the role of Somatostatin in the endocrine pancreas?
Somatostatin decreases insulin and glucagon secretion.
What triggers the secretion of insulin from pancreatic beta cells?
An increase in blood glucose levels.
How does glucose enter beta cells?
Through GLUT receptors.
What is produced when glucose is metabolized in beta cells?
ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
What effect does ATP have on potassium channels in beta cells?
ATP blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels.
What happens to potassium levels inside the beta cell after ATP blocks the K+ channels?
K+ levels increase inside the cell, leading to slight depolarization.
What is the result of calcium channel opening in beta cells?
Influx of calcium leads to depolarization and release of insulin.
What is the most common route for insulin administration?
Subcutaneous route.
Which insulin can be administered intravenously?
Only regular insulin.
What is the insulin of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis?
Regular insulin.
What areas are recommended for subcutaneous insulin administration?
Entire abdomen (except around the umbilicus), anterior thigh, lateral thigh, and arm.
What is the inhalational route of insulin that was withdrawn from the market?
Exubera, due to pulmonary complications.
What type of insulin is Afreeza and when should it be administered?
Afreeza is a short-acting insulin that should be given before every meal.
What is the insulin preparation that is a combination of 70% Ultra-Lente and 30% Semi-Lente?
Lente.
What stabilizes the hexameric form of insulin to make it long-acting?
Zinc (Zn).
Which insulin is the insulin of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis?
Regular insulin, as it can be given IV.
What is the most common side effect of insulin therapy?
Hypoglycemia.
What advice can be given to patients to prevent hypoglycemia?
Do not skip meals and keep glucose on hand.
What is a side effect that results from repeated injections at the same site?
Lipoatrophy.
What is the pH level of Glargine insulin and why is it significant?
Glargine is at an acidic pH (<4), and no insulin should be mixed with it.
What are insulin secretagogues and how do they function?
Insulin secretagogues are drugs that increase insulin secretion by inhibiting ATP sensitive K+ channels.
What is a common side effect of drugs that act by increasing insulin secretion?
Hypoglycemia.
What is the requirement for using insulin secretagogues?
More than 30% functional beta cells should be present.
What are the two classes of insulin secretagogues mentioned?
Sulfonylureas and Meglitinides.
What is a notable side effect of Sulfonylureas?
They can cause hypoglycemia and weight gain.
What is a specific side effect of Chlorpropamide?
Cholestatic jaundice and disulfiram-like reaction.
What is the duration of action for Meglitinides?
They are short-acting, working for about 1 hour.
What class of drugs is Metformin part of?
Biguanides, which are AMP Kinase stimulators.
What is the primary action of biguanides like Metformin on gluconeogenesis?
Biguanides inhibit gluconeogenesis.
What is the effect of biguanides on glycolysis?
Biguanides stimulate glycolysis.
Why do biguanides not cause hypoglycemia?
Because they do not release insulin.
What is a common side effect of biguanides, particularly Metformin?
Megaloblastic Anemia.
What condition can result from the accumulation of lactic acid due to biguanides?
Lactic acidosis.
In which patients are biguanides contraindicated?
Patients with liver disease, renal disease, or conditions predisposing to hypoxia.
Why is Metformin considered the drug of choice for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
Because it has no risk of hypoglycemia and provides maximum reduction in HbA1c.
What is the mechanism of action of Glitazones (Thiazolidinediones)?
They stimulate PPAR, leading to the reversal of insulin resistance.
What is a significant adverse effect of Troglitazone, a type of Glitazone?
Hepatotoxicity.
What monitoring is required for Rosiglitazone and Pioglitazone?
Liver function tests (LFT) monitoring.
What is a major side effect of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?
Flatulence due to the production of gases.
What should be used to treat hypoglycemia in the presence of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?
Glucose, not food or sucrose.
What are the most important endogenous incretins?
GLP (Glucagon-like peptide) and GIP (Glucose-stimulated insulinotropic polypeptide).
What are the functions of incretins?
Increase insulin release, decrease gastric motility, stimulate satiety center of brain, inhibit apoptosis of B-cells of pancreas.
What happens to GLP after it is released?
It is metabolized by DPP-4 and becomes inactive.
What is the risk associated with Rosiglitazone?
Increased risk of myocardial infarction (MI).
What is the risk associated with Pioglitazone?
Increased risk of urinary bladder carcinoma.
What are the contraindications for alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?
Inflammatory bowel disease, ulcerative colitis, and Crohn's disease.
What is the effect of sodium and water retention in patients with CHF and HTN?
It is advised to avoid certain medications that cause Na+ and water retention in these patients.
What do alpha-glucosidase inhibitors do?
They act by inhibiting the intestinal absorption of carbohydrates, leading to decreased blood sugar levels.
What are the three types of incretin-mimetic drugs?
GLP analogues, DPP-4 inhibitors, Dual GLP-1 and GIP agonist.
Name some GLP-1 analogues.
Exenatide, Liraglutide, Albiglutide, Dulaglutide, Semaglutide.
What is a major side effect of GLP-analogues?
Acute pancreatitis.
Which GLP-1 analogue is approved for obesity?
Liraglutide.
What is a common side effect of DPP-4 inhibitors?
Nasopharyngitis.
Which DPP-4 inhibitor is safe in renal failure?
Linagliptin.
What is the route of administration for GLP-1 analogues?
Subcutaneously.
What is the indication for Teduglutide?
Short Bowel Syndrome as it decreases gastric emptying.
What is a unique feature of Semaglutide among GLP-1 analogues?
It can be given orally.
What are the advantages of GLP-analogues?
Cause weight loss and do not cause hypoglycemia (with exceptions).
What is Tirzepatide indicated for?
Obesity
What is the role of SGLT-2 in glucose reabsorption?
SGLT-2 reabsorbs glucose in the proximal tubule of the nephron.
What happens when SGLT-2 inhibitors are used?
They stop the reabsorption of glucose in the proximal tubule, resulting in glucosuria.
What are some common side effects of SGLT-2 inhibitors?
Urinary tract infections and genital tract infections, such as Fournier's gangrene.
What is the risk of using SGLT-2 inhibitors in type 1 diabetes patients?
It can lead to ketoacidosis if insulin is stopped after normalizing blood sugar levels.
What is the function of amylin?
To decrease blood sugar levels.
What is Pramlintide and how is it administered?
Pramlintide is an amylin analogue given by subcutaneous injection.
What is the effect of Bromocriptine on insulin resistance?
It decreases insulin resistance and restores insulin sensitivity.
When is Bromocriptine taken?
In small doses early in the morning upon awakening.
What hormones are secreted by the adrenal medulla?
Adrenaline, Nor-Adrenaline, and Dopamine.
What is the major endogenous mineralocorticoid?
Aldosterone.
What are the actions of aldosterone?
Retain Na+ and water, remove K+ and H+.
What is the major endogenous glucocorticoid?
Hydrocortisone.
What are the catabolic actions of glucocorticoids?
Breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose, proteins breakdown, fats breakdown, and Ca²+ metabolism.
What is a potential consequence of glucocorticoid-induced Ca²+ metabolism disruption?
Osteoporosis.
What is the anti-inflammatory action of glucocorticoids?
Inhibition of chemotaxis, used in inflammatory conditions, and can cause delayed wound healing.
In what conditions are glucocorticoids indicated as immunosuppressants?
Transplantation and autoimmune diseases.
What cancers are glucocorticoids indicated for?
Hodgkin Lymphoma, Non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and Lymphocytic leukemia.
In which condition are steroids not used?
Kaposi sarcoma.
What is the effect of glucocorticoids on neutrophils and lymphocytes in the blood?
Glucocorticoids increase the movement of neutrophils from bone marrow to blood, causing neutrophilia, and inhibit the movement of lymphocytes, causing lymphopenia.
Which glucocorticoid has the maximum anti-inflammatory activity?
Dexamethasone.
What is the primary mineralocorticoid responsible for salt and water retention?
Aldosterone.
Which glucocorticoid has the maximum mineralocorticoid activity?
Hydrocortisone.
Name a glucocorticoid with zero mineralocorticoid activity.
Triamcinolone, Dexamethasone, Betamethasone, or Paramethasone.
What is the classification of drugs based on their duration of action for glucocorticoids?
Short Acting (<12 hours), Intermediate Acting (12-36 hours), Long Acting (>36 hours).
What is the classification of drugs based on their activity for mineralocorticoids?
Aldosterone is the primary mineralocorticoid, while DOCA is a mineralocorticoid with cortisone-like activity.
What is the use of Dexa or Betamethasone in antenatal care?
For fetal lung maturity by increasing surfactant production.
What are the replacement uses of corticosteroids?
Acute adrenal insufficiency/Addisonian crisis (by IV) and chronic adrenal insufficiency/Addison's disease (by oral).
What are some other uses of corticosteroids?
Inflammation, autoimmune diseases, transplantations, anticancer therapy, and asthma.
What is the total dose and duration for Betamethasone in antenatal steroids?
Total dose is 24 mg, total duration is 48 hours.
What is the total dose and duration for Dexamethasone in antenatal steroids?
Total dose is 24 mg, total duration is 48 hours.
What happens when corticosteroids are given continuously for more than 2 weeks?
HPA axis suppression occurs.
What is a preventive measure for HPA axis suppression?
Stop unnecessary use of steroids and prescribe them for a minimum period preferably less than 2 weeks.
What should be done if a person has been taking steroids for 3 months and develops a severe infection?
Do not stop steroids; external supplementation of steroids must be given to handle stress.
What should be done if HPA suppression is present and the person is in an emergency?
Give steroids from outside even if infection develops, as infection can be treated with antibiotics.
What are the adverse effects of glucocorticoids related to eye health?
Glaucoma and cataracts.
What condition can result from long-term use of glucocorticoids affecting the muscles?
Limb muscle atrophy.
What gastrointestinal issue is a contraindication for glucocorticoid use?
Peptic ulcer.
What bone-related condition is associated with glucocorticoid use?
Osteoporosis and osteonecrosis.
What syndrome can be caused by glucocorticoids?
Cushing syndrome.
What cardiovascular condition is a contraindication for glucocorticoid use?
Congestive heart failure (CHF).
What is a serious complication of glucocorticoid use related to the endocrine system?
Suppression of the HPA axis.
What is a contraindication for glucocorticoid use related to infections?
Infections.
What metabolic condition is a contraindication for glucocorticoid use?
Diabetes mellitus (DM).
What is a potential renal issue associated with glucocorticoid use?
Renal failure.
What effect does Vitamin D have on serum calcium and phosphate levels?
Vitamin D increases both serum Ca2+ and serum PO4- levels.
What is the effect of Calcitonin on serum calcium and phosphate levels?
Calcitonin decreases both serum Ca2+ and serum PO4- levels.
What is the role of PTH in calcium balance?
PTH increases serum Ca2+ and decreases serum PO4- levels.
What is the recommended daily dose of Calcium for osteoporosis management?
1200 mg/day.
What is the recommended daily dose of Vitamin D for osteoporosis management?
800 IU per day.
What are the main categories of drugs used in osteoporosis treatment?
Nutritional factors, Inhibit osteoclast, and Stimulate osteoblast.
What is the route of administration for Zoledronate in osteoporosis treatment?
Given IV once yearly.
What are the precautions to prevent esophagitis when taking Bisphosphonates?
Take on an empty stomach, with a full glass of water, and remain upright for 30 minutes.
What is the primary action of Bisphosphonates in osteoporosis treatment?
Inhibit osteoclasts.
What are some drugs that inhibit osteoclasts in osteoporosis treatment?
Calcitonin, Estrogens, SERMs, Denosumab, and Cinacalcet.
What is the drug of choice (D.O.C) for osteoporosis?
Bisphosphonates are the D.O.C for osteoporosis.
What are the selective progesterone receptor modulators (SPRM)?
Mifepristone, Onapristone, Ulipristal.
How long are bisphosphonates indicated for osteoporosis treatment?
They are indicated for a period of 5 years and can be continued for another 5 years after a drug holiday of 1-2 years.
What is a major side effect of bisphosphonates?
Esophageal toxicity or esophageal ulcers.
What condition is bisphosphonates also the D.O.C for besides osteoporosis?
Hypercalcemia of malignancy.
What is the role of estrogen in post-menopausal osteoporosis?
Decreased estrogen is responsible for post-menopausal osteoporosis and it prevents bone resorption.
What are the risks associated with estrogen therapy in post-menopausal women?
Increased risk of breast and endometrial carcinoma.
What are Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs) used for?
They are used in post-menopausal osteoporosis.
What is a major side effect of Raloxifene, a SERM?
Thromboembolism.
What is the mechanism of action of PTH analogues in osteoporosis treatment?
They stimulate osteoblasts.
How is PTH 1-34 administered for osteoporosis treatment?
It is given subcutaneously as it is not effective orally.
What is a side effect of osteoporosis treatment with PTH 1.34?
Increased risk of osteosarcoma.
What is the recommended duration for treatment with PTH 1.34?
Maximum of 2 years.
What should follow treatment with PTH 1.34?
Treatment with bisphosphonates.
What is the mechanism of action of Denosumab?
It inhibits osteoclastic activity and resorption of bone by targeting RANK ligand.
What receptors are present on the surface of osteoclast cells?
RANK receptors.
What is the dual activity of Strontium Ranelate?
Stimulating osteoblasts and inhibiting osteoclasts.
What is a side effect of Strontium Ranelate?
Thromboembolism.
What is the role of calcium sensing receptors (CaSR) in the parathyroid gland?
They inhibit PTH release when they sense and bind to calcium.
What happens in hyperparathyroidism regarding PTH and calcium?
PTH remains elevated in the blood despite hypercalcemia because calcium cannot stimulate CaSR.
What are the drugs classified as calcimimetics?
Cinacalcet and Etelcalcetide.
In which condition are calcimimetics indicated?
Osteoporosis due to hyperparathyroidism.
What hormones are secreted by the ovaries in females?
Estrogen and Progesterone.
What hormone is predominantly secreted by the testes in males?
Testosterone.
What is the predominant natural estrogen during the post-menopausal period?
Estrone (E1).
Which natural estrogen is predominant in the reproductive age group?
Estradiol (E2).
What is the predominant natural estrogen during pregnancy?
Estriol (E3).
How does estrogen affect bone health?
It inhibits osteoclast activity, increasing bone formation.
What effect does estrogen have on the HDL/LDL ratio in blood?
It increases the HDL/LDL ratio.
What are the risks associated with estrogen in breast and endometrial tissues?
Increased risk of cancer.
What vasomotor symptoms can occur in the absence of estrogen, such as in postmenopausal women?
Hot flushes and vaginal atrophy.
What are some types of drugs that work through estrogen receptors?
SERM, SERD, STEAR, Aromatase inhibitors.
What is the ideal effect of a Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)?
Increased bone formation, increased HDL/LDL ratio, decreased breast and endometrial cancer risk, decreased thromboembolism.
What is a major side effect of Raloxifene, an ideal SERM?
Thromboembolism due to its agonist effect at the liver.
What are the benefits of newer SERMs like Tamoxifen, Doloxifene, and Toremifene?
They decrease breast cancer risk, increase bone formation, improve HDL/LDL ratio, and increase the risk of endometrial cancer and thromboembolism.
What are the three B's that newer SERMs are beneficial for?
Bone, Blood, and Breast.
What is the main side effect of Clomiphene?
Multiple pregnancy.
What are Fulvestrant and Elacestrant used for?
They are used for Tamoxifen resistant breast cancer.
What is the mechanism of action of Clomiphene?
It acts as an estrogen receptor antagonist in the pituitary, inhibiting negative feedback of estrogen, which increases LH/FSH levels.
What is Tibolone and how does it function in different tissues?
Tibolone is a designer HRT that is metabolized to different metabolites in different tissues, acting as an agonist in some and an antagonist in others.
What are the drugs classified as aromatase inhibitors?
Letrozole, Anastrozole, and Exemestane.
In which condition are aromatase inhibitors indicated?
They are indicated in post-menopausal breast cancer and are also the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.
What is the androgenic activity of 1st generation progestogens?
+++
Which generation of progestogens has anti-androgenic activity?
4th Generation
What is the major use of mifepristone?
Emergency contraception, induction of abortion, treatment of fibroids, endometriosis, and progesterone receptor positive cancers.
What is the unique activity of Drospirenone?
It has anti-mineralocorticoid activity.
What is the time frame for taking Ulipristal as an emergency contraceptive?
Up to 120 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse.
What does Onapristone specifically block?
It is a progesterone antagonist and does not block glucocorticoid receptors.
What are the functions of testosterone?
Feedback inhibition, Internal genitalia development, Spermatogenesis, Hematopoiesis.
What are the functions of Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)?
Secondary sexual characters, External genitalia development, Prostate growth, Male pattern baldness, Loss of hair.
What are some examples of 5-α reductase inhibitors?
Finasteride, Dutasteride.
What are some examples of androgen receptor blockers?
Flutamide, Nilutamide, Bicalutamide, Enzalutamide, Apalutamide.
What is the common use of androgen receptor blockers?
In the treatment of prostatic cancers.
What conditions are treated with 5-α reductase inhibitors like finasteride?
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) and Androgenital alopecia (Male pattern baldness).
What is the ratio of androgenic action to anabolic action in anabolic steroids compared to normal androgens?
1:3 in anabolic steroids compared to 1:1 in androgens.
What are some examples of anabolic steroids?
Nandrolone, Stanozolol.
What are some side effects of anabolic steroids?
Hepatotoxicity, Impotence.
What is tested in the dope test for competitive sports?
Intake of anabolic steroids.
What are oral contraceptives used for?
To prevent conception (pregnancy).
What is the main mechanism of combined oral contraceptive pills?
Inhibition of ovulation.
What is the active ingredient in combined oral contraceptive pills?
Estrogen - Ethinyl Estradiol and Progesterone - Levonorgestrel.
What is the recommended dosage for combined oral contraceptive pills?
1 tablet daily for 21 days, followed by no tablet for the next 7 days.
What should be done if one tablet of combined oral contraceptive is missed?
Take 2 tablets on the next day.
What should be done if two or more tablets of combined oral contraceptive are missed?
Discard remaining tablets, practice another method of contraception, and start afresh from the next cycle.
What is breakthrough bleeding in the context of oral contraceptives?
Bleeding during the first 21 days, which is not normal and can be prevented by phasic pills.
What are the phases of biphasic pills and their progesterone levels?
Day 1-10 has less progesterone, and Day 11-21 has more progesterone.
What is the purpose of gradually increasing progesterone in oral contraceptives?
To prevent breakthrough bleeding.
What are some mild adverse effects of oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)?
Nausea, oedema, recurrent headache, mastalgia, abnormal bleeding, loss of withdrawal bleeding.
What are the indications for using progestin-only pills (POP/minipills)?
Thromboembolism risk and lactation.
What is the recommended dosage for emergency contraceptive combined oral contraceptives?
2 tablets at start and 2 tablets after 12 hours.
What is the time frame for using emergency contraceptives after unprotected intercourse?
Within 72 hours for combined OCPs and 120 hours for Ulipristal.
What are some non-contraceptive benefits of OCPs?
Reduction of ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, endometriosis, neoplasia, ectopic pregnancy, fibroids, iron deficiency anemia, premenstrual tension syndrome, and skeletal disease.
What are the risks associated with OCPs regarding cancer?
Increased risk of cervical and breast cancer, and decreased risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer.
