3 - Bacterial physiology and microbial geneticss

Bacterial growth involves an increase in cell mass through an increase in size and ___ of cells.

The time required for a cell to divide and its population to double is known as ___ time.

The length of generation time is directly dependent on the length of the ___ period of infections.

Under certain conditions, E. coli will produce 1000 progeny in about ___ hours.

Doubling time varies with the species, nutrient amount, temperature, pH, and other ___.

Coliform bacteria have a generation time of ___ minutes.

Tuberculosis bacteria have a generation time of ___ hours.

Leprosy bacteria have a generation time of ___ days.

The growth curve of bacteria shows ___ phases: Lag, Log or Exponential, Stationary & phase of ___.

In the bacterial growth curve, the phase where the population size starts relatively flat is called the ___ phase.

The phase of the bacterial growth curve where the population rises steeply is known as the ___ phase.

During the ___ phase of the bacterial growth curve, the population size plateaus.

The final phase of the bacterial growth curve, where the population decreases, is referred to as the ___ phase.

During the ___ phase, there is no increase in the number of cells, but an increase in cell size due to high metabolic activity.

In the ___ phase, bacteria multiply at the fastest rate possible under the given conditions.

The ___ phase is characterized by an equilibrium between cell division and death, influenced by nutrient consumption and waste accumulation.

In the ___ phase, the number of deaths exceeds the number of new cells formed, leading to a logarithmic decline.

A chemostat is used to maintain a bacterial culture in a specific phase of growth or at a specific ___ concentration.

In a chemostat, fresh medium is continuously added while culture liquid containing leftover nutrients and microorganisms is continuously ___ at the same rate.

The purpose of using a chemostat is to keep a bacterial culture in a ___ phase, which allows for synchronous growth.

A chemostat is a type of ___ that is used for scientific and industrial purposes.

One factor affecting bacterial growth is ___.

The concentration of ___ and ___ in the atmosphere is a factor that affects bacterial growth.

The ___ concentration is a critical factor influencing bacterial growth.

___ and drying are important factors that affect bacterial growth.

The ___ effect is a factor that can influence bacterial growth.

___ and sonic stress are factors that can affect bacterial growth.

___ is a factor that can impact bacterial growth.

The optimum temperature for most pathogenic bacteria is ___°C.

Bacterial growth does not occur above the ___ temperature.

Bacterial growth does not occur below the ___ temperature.

At temperatures above the optimum, bacterial growth drops quickly due to ___ denaturation.

Mesophilic bacteria grow best between ___ and ___ °C.

Psychrophilic bacteria thrive at temperatures below ___ °C.

Thermophilic bacteria grow best at high temperatures around ___ °C.

The typical mesophile, such as ___, peaks around ___ °C.

The growth rate of typical psychrophiles peaks between ___ and ___ °C.

Extreme thermophiles, like ___, peak around ___ °C.

___ require O2 for growth.

Examples of anaerobes include ___ and ___.

___ grow in low O2 levels.

Facultative anaerobes can grow in the presence or absence of ___ .

Anaerobes lack enzymes such as ___, ___, and ___ which are involved in O2 metabolism.

Capnophilic bacteria thrive in environments with high levels of ___ .

In test tube A, the bacteria are classified as ___ aerobes, which are concentrated at the top.

Test tube B contains ___ anaerobes, with bacteria concentrated at the bottom.

An ___ cannot synthesize a particular building block, such as an amino acid or nucleotide bases.

Growth factors are found in ___ amounts and have a specific role; they cannot be synthesized by the organism.

Examples of growth factors include vitamins such as ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___.

Growth factors also include purines and ___ for DNA synthesis.

Amino acids are necessary for ___ synthesis and are considered growth factors.

Water constitutes ___ to ___% of the whole cell mass in bacteria.

The role of water in microbial cells includes solubilizing crystalloids for electrolyte dissociation and serving as a source of ___ and ___.

The bacteria in test tube C are known as ___ anaerobes, as they are concentrated at the top but also dispersed throughout the tube.

In test tube D, the bacteria are classified as ___ anaerobes, with an even distribution throughout the tube.

Test tube E contains ___, with bacteria concentrated in the middle of the tube.

Normal aerobic microbes produce ___ to detoxify H2O2 during respiration.

Aerotolerant bacteria ferment carbohydrates to produce ___.

The accumulation of lactic acid inhibits the growth of ___ competitors.

Lactic acid producers establish a favorable ecological niche by inhibiting ___ growth.

Most bacteria grow best in a narrow pH range near ___ (6.5 – 7.6).

Very few bacteria grow at an acid pH below ___.

In some foods, such as cheeses, spoilage is prevented by acids produced by ___ fermentation.

Lactobacteria thrive in ___ pH conditions.

Vibrio cholerae prefers a pH range of ___ to ___.

M. tuberculosis has an optimal pH of ___.

Drying is lethal to cells because water is an essential ingredient of bacterial ___.

T. pallidum is highly sensitive to ___.

Staphylococci spp can withstand drying for ___.

Spores are resistant to desiccation and may survive for several ___.

Bacteria are more tolerant to osmotic variation due to the mechanical strength of their ___ walls.

X rays and gamma rays exposure can be ___ to microorganisms.

Microorganisms may be ruptured by ___ stress.

Direct microscopic counting is a method for determining ___ bacterial count.

The method used for viable bacterial counting through dilution is called ___.

A ___ counter is used to count bacterial cells using an electronic sensor.

Flow cytometry is a technique used for ___ bacterial counting.

Bacterial turbidity is a method that can indicate ___ bacterial count.

In flow cytometry, the cluster labeled 'Dead' is represented by ___ dots.

The cluster labeled 'Live' in flow cytometry is composed of ___ dots.

In the dilution process, the first tube is labeled 'Original inoculum' and contains a ___ liquid.

The dilution factor for the second tube in the serial dilution process is ___ .

The formula to calculate the number of bacteria per ml is: Number of colonies on plate x reciprocal of dilution of sample = number of ___ /ml.

In a spectrophotometer, a blank allows ___ light to pass through compared to a bacterial suspension.

The presence of bacteria in a suspension causes ___ light to pass through compared to a blank.

A sterile membrane filter is used to separate bacteria from a ___ culture medium.

Holophytic nutrition involves the digestion of macromolecules by ___ enzymes.

Proteins are digested into ___ and oligopeptides.

Carbohydrates are broken down into ___ and oligosaccharides.

In passive transport, molecules move from an area of ___ concentration to an area of ___ concentration.

Active transport requires ___ to move molecules against the concentration gradient.

Carbon is needed for all the ___ compounds that make up a living cell.

Half of the dry weight of a typical bacterial cell is ___.

Organisms that are unable to synthesize their own metabolites and depend on preformed organic compounds are called ___.

Organisms that can synthesize all their organic compounds by utilizing atmospheric CO2 and N2 are called ___.

Organisms require nitrogen to form the ___ group of the amino acid of protein.

Nitrogen is essential for the synthesis of ___ and ___.

Many bacteria meet nitrogen requirements by decomposing ___-containing material.

Sulfur is essential for synthesizing ___-containing amino acids and vitamins such as thiamine and biotin.

Important natural sources of sulfur include the sulfate ion (SO-), hydrogen sulfide, and ___-containing amino acids.

Phosphorus is crucial for the synthesis of ___ acids and the phospholipids of cell membranes.

Phosphorus is involved in the synthesis of bonds of ___, which is important for the storage and transfer of chemical energy within the cell.

Potassium, magnesium, and calcium are elements that microorganisms require, often as ___ for enzymes.

A ___ is a cell that can synthesize all its metabolites from inorganic material and requires no organic nutrients.

Deep-freezing involves rapid cooling of pure culture to temperatures between ___°C to ___°C.

Lyophilization involves freezing at temperatures between ___°C to ___°C and dehydrating in a high vacuum.

The growth factors required for H. influenzae are ___ and ___.

The interaction between S. aureus and H. influenzae on blood agar is an example of ___ feeding.

The phenomenon observed with H. influenzae on blood agar is known as the ___ phenomenon.

Lowering ___ is a method to prevent bacterial growth, which is the basis for food preservation techniques such as drying or using high concentrations of salt or sugar.

Some bacteria form endospores if H2O is less than ___%.

Lyophilization is a method of extracting ___ from biological samples.

Lyophilization occurs in a vacuum at temperatures of ___ to ___ °C.

Lyophilization is used to preserve ___, vaccines, sera, bacteria, and viruses.

The dry compounds of a bacterial cell consist of ___ to ___ percent of its composition.

Essential elements found in bacteria include ___, ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___.

Proteins make up ___ percent of the bacterial cell, with ___ to ___ percent of that being part of the cell wall.

Complex proteins in bacteria, known as proteids, consist of proteins plus an ___ element.

Types of proteids include nucleoP, lipoP, ___, and chromoP.

Nucleic acids in bacteria consist of ___% DNA and ___% RNA.

In bacteria, RNA can be found as ___ and ___ or bounded in ribosomes.

Bacteria contain a single chromosome of ___ DNA in a loop.

Carbohydrates make up ___% of the dry compound in bacteria.

Lipids constitute ___% of the chemical composition of bacteria.

In Gram(-) bacteria, ___ is a specific type of lipid found in the cell wall.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis contains ___ acid as a specific neutral lipid.

In diagnosis, the nutritional requirements of cells are important for ___ and ___.

In pathogenesis, ___ is a component of Lipid A that contributes to the virulence of bacteria like S. pneumoniae and B. anthracis.

Bacterial enzymes such as ___ in S. aureus contribute to its pathogenicity by promoting coagulation.

In therapy, Lipid A can lead to ___ shock.

Resistance in Gram(-) bacteria is often due to ESBS-enzymes, which are a type of ___ enzyme.

In sterilization, spores of bacilli such as B. anthracis and C. tetani are significant because they can survive ___ conditions.

Inducible enzymes are produced in the presence of ___ in the media.

In the absence of lactose, the lac operon is ___ and no enzymes are made.

When lactose is present, it binds to the repressor, making it ___.

Constitutive enzymes are always present in relatively constant amounts, regardless of the amount of ___.

The enzyme class that catalyzes hydrolysis is called ___.

___ enzymes are responsible for the rearrangement of atoms within a molecule.

The enzyme class that splits chemicals into smaller parts without using water is known as ___.

Enzymes that transfer electrons or hydrogen atoms from one molecule to another are classified as ___.

The joining of two molecules by the formation of new bonds is catalyzed by ___.

Enzymes that move a functional group from one molecule to another are called ___.

The pathogenic factor ___ divides the genus Staphylococcus into Coag(+) and Coag(-).

The manual biochemical identification method that distinguishes Staphylococcus as (+) and Streptococcus as (-) is called ___.

The automated biochemical identification system mentioned is the ___ System.

In the flow chart, the positive coagulase leads to ___ while the negative coagulase leads to CoNs.

Bacterial enzyme activity is optimal at a temperature of ___ to ___ °C.

The pH range for bacterial enzyme activity is between ___ and ___.

Heavy metals like ___ and ___ inhibit bacterial enzyme activity.

A final product of a metabolic pathway acts as a ___ inhibitor.

Penicillin inhibits the bacterial enzyme responsible for ___ in the bacterial cell wall.

The relationship between anabolic processes and catabolic processes is represented by a ___ sign pointing to ___ metabolism.

The catabolic process provides substances for anabolic processes and ___ for transport and biosynthesis.

Energy in catabolic processes is derived from ___ and biological oxidation.

In the anabolic process, small molecules like H2O, N, and CO2 are converted into ___ compounds.

The final products of the anabolic process include biopolymers such as nucleic acids and ___.

___ bacteria use O2 as the terminal electron acceptor and they respire.

___ bacteria use substrates like sulfate, nitrate, CO2, iron (III), or organic compounds as the electron acceptor.

Respiration releases ___ times more energy than fermentation.

Fluid thioglycolate medium (FTM) contains peptones, yeast extract, and ___.

In Fluid thioglycolate medium, thioglycolate binds ___.

The agar in Fluid thioglycolate medium allows for the slow diffusion of ___.

___ is an O2 indicator used in Fluid thioglycolate medium.

Lipid A of Gram (-) bacteria is a type of ___ that serves as a contamination evaluation index of biological products.

___ are produced by bacteria and can be classified as endotoxins or exotoxins.

The green pigment produced by ___ spp. is an example of a bacterial product with medical significance.

___, such as Penicillin, have a significant role in the treatment of infectious diseases.

Lactobacterin is a type of ___ that is important for the treatment of infectious diseases.

___ are used for the identification of bacteria and can be produced by various bacterial species.

The medical significance of pigments includes their role in the ___ of bacteria.

A culture medium is any material prepared for the growth of ___ in a laboratory.

Microbes introduced into a culture medium to initiate growth are called an ___.

Microbes that grow and multiply in or on a medium are known as a ___.

The medium must be initially ___, containing no living microorganisms.

Agar is a common solidifying agent for a culture medium derived from ___ alga.

Few microbes can ___ agar, so it remains solid.

Agar liquefies at about ___°C, which is the boiling point of water.

At sea level, agar remains liquid until the temperature is less than ___°C.

A ___ medium is used for the enrichment of bacteria and does not contain agar.

Solid medium contains ___ to ___% agar and is used for selection and purification of bacteria.

A ___ medium contains 0.3-0.5% agar and is used for motility tests and short-term preservation.

Examples of solid medium include slants and ___ dishes.

On liquid medium, superficial growth is also known as ___.

A cloudy appearance throughout the liquid in a test tube indicates ___.

The growth pattern characterized by a concentration of solid matter at the bottom of the tube is called ___.

On solid medium, a cluster of microorganisms growing is referred to as ___.

A colony arises from a ___ cell and is directly visible on solid medium.

Bacterial colonies can be classified as ___, ___, or ___.

The three main categories for describing bacterial colony morphology are FORM, ELEVATION, and ___.

Under the FORM category, one of the subcategories is ___, which resembles a root system or branching pattern.

In the ELEVATION category, a shape with a raised central bump is referred to as ___.

An entire margin of a bacterial colony is characterized by a ___, even edge.

In a bacterial culture streaked on agar, the area at the top of the petri dish shows ___ growth of creamy white bacteria.

As the streak progresses down the petri dish, the bacterial growth becomes more ___ with distinct, individual colonies appearing.

A colony is a visible cell mass of microbial cells that arises from a ___ cell.

Pure cultures are usually obtained by the ___ method.

The streak plate method is used to isolate ___ from a mixture of microorganisms.

In the streak plate method, an inoculation loop is used to create a ___ pattern on the agar.

The purpose of the streak plate method is to obtain ___ colonies for further study.

In ___ media, the exact composition is known and all chemicals are reagent grade.

___ media is used to culture a wide variety of organisms and its raw ingredients composition is not known precisely.

In genetics, the terms ___ and ___ are used to differentiate between organisms based on their nutritional requirements.

Alkaline Peptone Water is used for the isolation of ___ ___ .

Transport media allows organisms to ___ during transport.

Transport media is ___-nutritive and does not allow organisms to proliferate.

For bacteria, common transport media include ___, ___, and ___.

The transport medium used for viruses is called ___ (VTM).

Reducing media, such as ___ medium, chemically remove molecular oxygen that might interfere with the growth of anaerobes.

Petri plates can be incubated in an anaerobic ___, anaerobic chamber, or OxyPlate.

The OxyPlate contains the enzyme ___, which combines oxygen with hydrogen, removing oxygen as water is formed.

Some parasitic and fastidious bacteria must be cultured in ___ or in ___ cultures.

CO2 incubators or candle jars are used to grow bacteria that require an increased ___ concentration.

Procedures and equipment to minimize exposure to pathogenic microorganisms are designated as biosafety levels ___.

Refrigeration is used for ___ storage of bacterial culture.

The ___ cycle is characterized by the integration of the bacteriophage nucleic acid into the host bacterium's genome.

In the non-lytic cycle, the genetic material of the bacteriophage is called a ___.

Infections caused by Shigella spread resistance to antibiotics such as ___ and ___ among others.

The plasmid that transmits the col factor leads at the time of ___ during conjugation.

Bacteria can acquire drug resistance through ___ mechanisms.

Stepwise mutation occurs in the use of ___ while one step mutation occurs in the use of ___.

The occurrence of ___ is due to the treatment of tuberculosis with sole drug Streptomycin, leading to resistant mutants.

The use of Penicillin created resistant ___ by transformation.

The three methods of genetic transfer are ___, ___, and ___.

One biochemical mechanism of drug resistance includes ___ permeability of drugs.

Producing enzymes to ___ drugs is a biochemical mechanism of drug resistance.

Transposable genetic elements are also known as ___ or ___ genes.

Transposons move around in a ___ and ___ manner between chromosomal and extra chromosomal DNA molecules.

Small transposons typically range from ___ to ___ Kb in size.

Transposons are not self-replicating and depend on ___ or ___ for replication.

A chunk of DNA is added by ___ during the process of transposition.

Genetic engineering was born from ___ recombination.

Genetic engineering involves changing the ___ material in an organism to alter its traits or products.

A recombinant DNA molecule contains DNA fragments spliced together from ___ or more organisms.

Pharmaceutical production includes the production of ___, interferon, hormones, and vaccines.

Genetically engineered plants are one of the modern applications of ___ engineering.

One application of genetic engineering in animals is ___ gene alterations.

___ fingerprinting is a technique used in genetic engineering for identification purposes.

The human genome initiative is a significant project in the field of ___ engineering.

A restriction enzyme is an enzyme that cuts ___-stranded DNA.

The restriction enzyme makes two incisions through each of the - backbones of the double helix.

The restriction endonuclease cuts the DNA without damaging the ___ bases.

DNA probes are ___ or ___ labelled copies of single stranded DNA.

In ex vivo gene therapy, tissues are removed from the patient and incubated with ___ to transfect them with the normal gene.

In vivo gene therapy differs from ex vivo gene therapy in that the ___ step is absent.

In ex vivo gene therapy, the transfected cells are reintroduced into the patient by ___.

In vivo gene therapy involves the direct introduction of virus or naked DNA into the ___ stream.

The patient is a ___-year-old male who became ill after an alcoholic spree.

The patient experienced symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, dehydration, ___, and high fever.

The patient died suddenly shortly after ___ to the hospital.

The Gram stain of sputum obtained before death shows ___ positive cocci in pairs.

The right lung was heavy, weighing ___ grams.

The lower lobe of the right lung showed diffuse ___ consolidation.

The trachea and bronchi contained a great deal of ___, and the mucosa was dark red.

The alveoli contain a large amount of inflammatory exudate, which consists of many ___ leukocytes, a few RBC's, macrophages, and strands of ___.

Many RBC's in the alveoli have been ___ by the macrophages and are undergoing disintegration.

The alveolar septa are delicate and well preserved, but markedly ___.

The most likely diagnosis is ___ and the likely causative agent is ___.

A lobar pneumonia is caused by ___ ___ .

In Griffith's experiment, the injection of a mixture of killed encapsulated and live capsule-free pneumococci resulted in the development of a ___ infection in animals.

Griffith isolated encapsulated pneumococci from the bodies of ___ mice.

Griffith found that encapsulated bacteria are transformed into stable encapsulated ___ forms.

Prokaryotes are ___ while eukaryotes are often ___.

Prokaryotes contain a single ___ chromosome, whereas eukaryotes have ___ chromosomes, usually more than 1.

Prokaryotes often contain ___, while eukaryotes do not contain ___.

In prokaryotes, translation is coupled to ___, while in eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the ___ and translation occurs in the ___.

___ is the study of heredity and variation of the reasons for similarity and differences between parents and their offspring.

A ___ is a segment of DNA that carries in its nucleotide sequence information for a specific biochemical or physiological property.

The ___ is the sum total of all the genetic information contained in a cell.

The chromosome is the single largest ___ molecule in a cell that contains the information necessary for the cell's survival.

A replicon is any segment of DNA that is capable of encoding its own ___ in the cell.

The chromosome is the single largest replicon in the ___.

DNA is composed of two strands of complementary ___ wound together in the form of a double helix.

The bacterial nucleus contains a circular chromosome of ___ about 1000um long when straightened.

The backbone of DNA consists of ___ and phosphate groups.

In a molecule of DNA, A is equal to ___ and G is equal to ___.

During replication, strands separate at one end and each strand acts as a ___.

RNA contains ___ sugar instead of deoxyribose.

In RNA, ___ replaces thymine.

The three types of RNA are messenger RNA (mRNA), ribosomal RNA (rRNA), and ___ RNA (tRNA).

A codon consists of a sequence of ___ nucleotides and is known as a ___ code.

One amino acid may be coded for by more than one ___ .

The codons UAA, UGA, and UAG are known as ___ codons because they do not code for any amino acid.

Stop codons terminate the synthesis of ___ .

In the process of synthesizing polypeptides, genetic information in DNA is ___ onto RNA.

Segments of DNA that do not function as codons and occur between coding sequences are called ___.

The segments of DNA that are coded and expressed are known as ___.

During transcription, introns are ___ from RNA before translation occurs.

In prokaryotes, transcription and translation are ___ and are not separated.

Transcription is the synthesis of ___ from DNA.

Translation is the synthesis of ___ from mRNA.

The presence of structures called ___ allows the cell to make lots of protein very quickly.

Bacteria possess extra chromosomal genetic DNA called ___ or ___.

Plasmids are in a ___ state while episomes are in an ___ state of plasmid + DNA.

Extra chromosomal genetic elements make bacteria resistant to ___ and help them produce ___.

Plasmids are ___ DNA molecules present in the cytoplasm of bacteria.

Plasmids are capable of ___ replication.

Plasmids can transfer ___ from one bacterial cell to another.

Bacteria may have more than one ___.

Plasmids can be classified by their ability to be transferred to other bacteria into ___ and ___ types.

Fertility (F) plasmids are capable of ___ and have genes for ___.

Resistance (R) plasmids contain genes for ___ to one or several antibiotics.

Col-plasmids code for ___, which are proteins that can kill other bacteria.

Degradative plasmids are capable of digesting ___ substances, such as toluene or salicylic acid.

Virulence plasmids have the ability to turn a bacterium into a ___.

Addiction systems in plasmids produce a long-lived ___ and a short-lived antidote.

Plasmids can confer ___ to antibiotics such as Streptomycin for M. tuberculosis and Ciprofloxacin for Salmonella typhi.

Plasmids can provide resistance to ___ metals, such as mercury found in antiseptics like merthiolate.

Plasmids are involved in the production of ___, such as colicins.

Plasmids can help bacteria resist ___ light by encoding DNA repair enzymes.

Plasmids can code for the production of ___, including enterotoxins, in E. coli and Shigella.

Pseudomonas spp. can degrade ___ organic compounds due to plasmid presence.

Pili and fimbriae coding in plasmids is important for ___ and gene exchange.

The structure that allows for gene exchange between bacteria is called a ___ pilus.

The ___ is the physical expression in an environment.

The ___ is the sum total of gene make up the genetic apparatus of cell established as genome.

Phenotype can ___ according to the environment.

In the presence of lactose, E. coli shows ___ fermentation due to beta-galactosidase.

Typhoid bacilli lose their flagella when grown in ___ agar.

Genotypic variation can occur through ___, transduction, and conjugation.

A physical variation in Typhoid bacilli is the loss of ___ when grown in certain conditions.

A mutation is a random, undirected, heritable variation caused by alteration in the ___ sequence of DNA.

Mutations can occur due to ___, deletion, or substitution of one or more bases.

Competence is connected with the ___ cycle, different at different stages of life.

In Griffith's experiment, the ___ strain is considered benign because it lacks a protective capsule.

The ___ strain is virulent due to its polysaccharide capsule that prevents detection by the host's immune system.

The conclusion from injecting the heat-killed S strain into a mouse is that killed S strain cells are ___.

The combination of R strain and heat-killed S strain resulted in the conclusion that live R strain cells were transformed to ___ strain.

Transduction is the transfer of a portion of ___ from one bacteria to another by bacteriophages.

In transduction, when the phage particle infects another bacteria, the recipient cell acquires new characters coded by ___ DNA.

Generalized transduction involves ___ segment of DNA.

Restricted transduction involves specific bacteriophages that transduce only a ___ genetic trait.

In the ___ cycle, after a large number of progeny are built up inside the host, the bacterium ruptures and phages are released.

Liquid media is used to enrich ___ in mixed cultures.

Inhibitory substances in media are used to suppress ___ organisms.

Selenite F broth is used for the enrichment of ___ and ___.

A DNA probe contains ___ to ___ nucleotides.

DNA probes help in the detection of homologous DNA by ___.

Minute quantities of DNA can be detected using ___.

DNA probes have a specific base sequence that is complementary to the base sequence of part of the ___ allele.

Drug fragments obtained by restriction enzyme digestion can be transferred to ___ or ___ membranes.

The technique used for transferring DNA fragments is called ___ blotting.

The technique used for transferring RNA fragments is called ___ blotting.

The technique used for transferring protein fragments is called ___ blotting.

In Western Blot, the protein mixture is separated by ___ gel electrophoresis.

Western Blot testing is a confirmatory test for the diagnosis of ___ and identifies antibodies directed against different antigens in the pathogen.

In the context of Western Blot, the antigens identified include surface, core, and ___ antigen.

PCR is a rapid and automatic amplification of specific ___ sequences.

In PCR, the products of the first cycle become the template for the ___ cycle.

During the denaturing step of PCR, the temperature is raised to ___°C to separate double stranded DNA.

In the annealing step of PCR, primers bind to the template at a temperature of ___°C.

The extension step of PCR occurs at ___°C where the new strand is synthesized.

PCR is a versatile tool useful in diagnosing ___, genetic or neoplastic diseases, and in forensic investigations.

A specific DNA sequence of a particular infectious agent is amplified using specific ___.

PCR can provide rapid analysis results in ___ day(s).

In PCR, the presence of ___ indicates a successful amplification of the target DNA sequence.

___ PCR is a type of PCR that allows for the amplification of multiple pathogens in a single sample.

The process of artificially introducing foreign DNA into organisms is called ___.

Recombinant animals produced through the introduction of foreign DNA are known as ___ organisms.

___ PCR is a method that allows for real-time monitoring of the PCR process.

In the process of ___, a bacterial cell takes up extracellular DNA from the environment.

___ involves a bacteriophage transferring genetic material to a bacterial cell.

In ___, two bacterial cells are connected by a pilus to exchange genetic material.

Genes transferred from one bacterium to another as ___ DNA.

The recipient cell must be ___ for the uptake of DNA.

Competence is the physiological state of the recipient cell, capable to join ___ DNA.

Streptococcus pneumoniae is competent at ___ exponential phase.

Examples of complex media include ___, ___, and ___ agar.

A basic medium provides ___ nutrients for most bacterial growth.

An example of a basic medium is ___ broth.

Nutrient/enrichment medium has ___ or special nutrients added to support fastidious bacterial growth.

An example of a nutrient/enrichment medium is ___ agar.

A ___ medium is designed to suppress unwanted microbes while encouraging the growth of desired microbes.

An example of a selective medium is ___ which is used for N. gonorrhoeae.

Levin (Eosin Methylene Blue) agar differentiates enteric bacteria based on their ability to ferment ___, resulting in blue colonies for fermenters and clear colonies for non-fermenters.

Blood agar is used for the culture of ___ organisms and distinguishing bacteria by their hemolysis patterns, especially ___.

The special feature of blood agar is the addition of ___, which serves as a nutrient and hemolysis substrate.

On DCA agar, lactose fermenters such as ___ appear in pink.

On DCA agar, lactose non-fermenters like ___ and ___ appear in yellow.

Mannitol-salt agar is selective for ___ species.

The high concentration of ___ in mannitol-salt agar inhibits the growth of most bacteria except for Staphylococcus.

Mannitol-salt agar contains a ___ indicator dye to show fermentation.

Loffler medium is used for the cultivation of ___ species.

Bacteria can undergo mutations at a rate of ___ to ___ per bacterium per division.

One source of mutations is ___ radiation, which includes both natural sunlight and tanning beds.

Cigarette smoke contains dozens of ___ chemicals that can cause mutations.

A conditional lethal mutant may survive under certain conditions, such as being ___ sensitive.

The ___ bacterium is spread through contaminated food and is associated with mutations.

A type of mutation that involves a change in a single base pair is called a ___ mutation.

___ mutations can include changes such as gain, loss, or duplication of genetic material.

A mutation that results in a different amino acid being incorporated into a protein is known as a ___ mutation.

A mutation that introduces a premature stop codon in a protein sequence is referred to as a ___ mutation.

A mutation that can counteract the effects of another mutation is called a ___ mutation.

A ___ is the most frequently occurring point mutation involving the replacement of a pyrimidine by another pyrimidine or a purine by another purine.

In a ___ mutation, a pyrimidine is replaced by a purine or vice versa.

An example of a transition mutation is ___ replaced by ___.

An example of a transversion mutation is ___ replaced by ___.

A frame shift mutation can occur due to ___ of a DNA base.

In a frame shift mutation, ___ can replace a DNA base.

A frame shift mutation can also result from the ___ of a DNA base.

Multisite mutations involve a large number of ___ pairs altered in DNA.

The four types of multisite mutations include Addition or Gain, Deletion or Loss, Duplication, and ___.

A missense mutation alters the triplet code and specifies an amino acid ___ from that normally located in the protein.

A nonsense mutation may cause premature polypeptide chain termination by a ___ codon.

A suppressor mutation causes the reversal of mutant phenotype by another mutation at a point on the DNA strand ___ from that of the original mutation.

In ___, naked DNA is taken up from the environment by bacterial cells.

___ involves the use of bacteriophages to transfer DNA between bacterial cells.

___ is the direct transfer of DNA from one bacterial cell to another.

The normal reproductive method of bacteria is ___ fission.

In binary fission, one cell divides into ___ identical cells.

Some bacteria reproduce by ___, spore formation, or fragmentation.

The prophage can be transmitted to daughter cells at each subsequent cell division and can later release it, causing proliferation of new phages via the ___ cycle.

In the lysogenic cycle, the temperate phage integrates its DNA into the host's ___.

The lytic cycle is characterized by phage ___ and host ___.

A ___ phage can integrate its DNA into the host chromosome, while a ___ phage leads to immediate lysis of the host cell.

In the lysogenic cycle, the integrated phage DNA is referred to as a ___.

Lysogenic conversion in Diphtheria bacteria occurs through ___ with beta phage.

The acquisition of toxigenicity in Diphtheria bacteria is influenced by low extracellular concentration of ___.

Elimination of phage from a toxigenic strain of C. Diphtheria renders it ___.

In conjugation, a ___ cell (F+) contacts a ___ cell (F-).

During conjugation, ___ is directly transferred between cells.

___ carry genetic information necessary for conjugation to occur.

Conjugation requires direct contact between donor and recipient via ___ .

The F-plasmid is a specific plasmid found in ___ with historical and lab use.

During conjugation, the ___ cell attaches to a recipient cell using its pilus.

In the process of conjugation, the ___ cell becomes an F+ cell after receiving plasmid DNA.

The donor cell restores its complete plasmid by synthesizing a ___ strand after transferring one strand of plasmid DNA.

The process of conjugation involves the transfer of ___ strand of plasmid DNA from the donor to the recipient cell.

An Hfr cell is formed when the F factor/plasmid exists in an ___ state with the host chromosome.

In Hfr conjugation, the donor bacterium is referred to as an ___ cell.

The recipient bacterium in Hfr conjugation is labeled as ___ cell.

During Hfr conjugation, the F plasmid integrates into the donor's chromosome by ___.

The process of Hfr conjugation involves the formation of a ___ to connect the donor and recipient cells.

After conjugation, the recipient cell becomes a ___ cell due to the incorporation of donor DNA.

F-duction occurs when a gene carried in the bacterial sex element (___ plasmid) recombines with the bacterial chromosome.

In the first step of sexduction, a bacterium with an F element contains a circle of DNA labeled with the letters ___ and ___.

During the process of sexduction, the F element is integrated into the bacterial ___.

When the F element is excised, it contains a bacterial gene but leaves behind a part of its own DNA within the main ___.

The F' element may participate in reciprocal recombination, allowing another cell to acquire the sexduced ___ gene.

The ___ factor is produced by E. coli and is lethal to other Enterobacterales.

The Resistance Transfer Factor (RTF) helps to spread multiple ___ resistance.