What are osteophytes and where do they develop in osteoarthritis?
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Mushroom-shaped bony outgrowths that develop at the margins of the articular surface.
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What are osteophytes and where do they develop in osteoarthritis?
Mushroom-shaped bony outgrowths that develop at the margins of the articular surface.
What is the most common soft tissue tumor in adults?
Lipoma, a benign tumor of fat.
Which cancers commonly metastasize to the bone?
Any cancer can spread to the bone, but typically multifocal metastases are common. Kidney and thyroid cancers may be solitary. Most involve the axial skeleton.
What genetic rearrangement is associated with primary Aneurysmal Bone Cyst?
Rearrangements of 17p13, leading to USP6 fusion.
Where do Ewing Sarcomas typically arise?
In the medullary cavity, invading the cortex, periosteum, and soft tissue.
What is the primary characteristic of Fibrous Dysplasia?
Localized developmental arrest where all components of normal bone are present but do not differentiate into mature structures.
What is the primary characteristic of Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC)?
Multiloculated blood-filled cystic spaces.
What are Fibrous Cortical Defects also known as?
Metaphyseal fibrous defects.
What are 'joint mice' in the context of osteoarthritis?
Dislodged pieces of cartilage that tumble into the joint, forming loose bodies.
What is Liposarcoma and what are its key genetic markers?
Liposarcoma is one of the most common sarcomas of adulthood, with key genetic markers including amplification of 12q13-q25 and t(12;16).
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children and adolescents?
Rhabdomyosarcoma.
What is the 5-year survival rate for synovial sarcoma?
25% to 65%.
Which viruses can cause Viral Arthritis?
Parvovirus B19, Rubella, EBV, Hepatitis B and C.
What happens to collagen type II fibers in osteoarthritis?
They are cleaved, yielding fissures and clefts.
Which joints are commonly affected by osteoarthritis?
Hips, knees, lower lumbar, cervical, PIP, DIP, 1st carpometacarpal, and 1st tarsometatarsal joints.
Which cells predominantly mediate the inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis?
CD4+ T cells.
Where do synovial sarcomas typically arise?
In the soft tissues near the knee joint.
In which patients is Salmonella a common cause of arthritis?
Patients with sickle cell disease.
What causes Mycobacterial Arthritis?
M. tuberculosis.
What criteria support the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?
Characteristic radiologic findings, sterile turbid synovial fluid with decreased viscosity, poor mucin clot, inclusion-bearing neutrophils, and a combination of RF and CCP antibodies.
What is the common demographic for Reactive Arthritis?
Men in their 20s or 30s.
What genetic factors are associated with Psoriatic Arthritis?
HLA B27 and HLA-Cw6.
What happens to the synovium during an episode of crystallization in gout?
The synovium becomes edematous and congested.
What characterizes Chronic Tophaceous Arthritis?
Repetitive precipitation of MSU, encrustation of the articular surface, hyperplastic and fibrotic synovium, pannus formation, and juxta-articular bone erosion.
What syndrome is associated with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and soft tissue myxoma?
Mazabraud Syndrome.
What are the clinical subtypes of superficial fibromatosis?
Palmar (Dupuytren Contracture), Plantar, and Penile (Peyronie disease).
What role does TNF play in rheumatoid arthritis?
TNF stimulates synovial cells to secrete proteases that destroy hyaline cartilage and is firmly implicated in the pathogenesis of RA.
How is Lyme Arthritis diagnosed?
By detecting anti-Borrelia antibodies.
Which patients are at risk of developing vasculitis?
Patients with severe erosive disease, rheumatoid nodules, and high titers of RF.
Which gender is more frequently affected by osteochondromas?
Men are affected three times more often than women.
What is the treatment for symptomatic osteochondromas?
Simple excision.
What causes Enteritis Associated Arthritis?
Gastrointestinal infections by Yersinia, Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter.
What is the typical size of a non-ossifying fibroma?
5-6 cm.
What are the four clinical stages of gout?
Asymptomatic Hyperuricemia, Acute Arthritis, Asymptomatic Intercritical Period, and Chronic Tophaceous Gout.
What is monostotic fibrous dysplasia and its clinical course?
Occurs equally in boys and girls, early adolescence. Stops enlarging at time of growth plate closure. Commonly affects femur, tibia, ribs, jawbones, calvarium, humerus. Asymptomatic, often an incidental finding. Shows ground-glass appearance with well-defined margination.
What are Heberden nodes and who are they more common in?
Prominent osteophytes at the DIP joints, more common in women.
What is osteoarthritis and its common characteristics?
Also called degenerative joint disease, it is the degeneration of cartilage resulting in structural and functional failure of synovial joints. It is the most common type of joint disease and is considered an intrinsic disease of the cartilage where chondrocytes respond to biochemical and mechanical stress.
What causes Lyme Arthritis?
Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted by deer tick (Ixodes).
What are the histological subtypes of chondrosarcoma?
Conventional, clear cell, dedifferentiated, and mesenchymal.
What is the treatment for conventional chondrosarcomas?
Wide surgical excision.
What type of cells dominate Giant Cell Tumors?
Multinucleated osteoclast-type giant cells.
What is a ganglion cyst?
A small cyst located near a joint capsule or tendon sheath, arising from cystic or myxoid degeneration of connective tissue.
Where do superficial fibromatoses typically arise?
In the deep dermis, subcutis, or muscle.
What are the common routes of spread for metastatic bone tumors?
Direct extension, lymphatic or hematogenous spread, and intraspinal seeding via Batson plexus of veins.
What is a pannus in rheumatoid arthritis?
A mass of edematous synovium, inflammatory cells, granulation tissue, and fibroblasts that grow over the articular cartilage and cause its erosion.
What factors contribute to the conversion of hyperuricemia to gout?
Age (20-30 y/o), genetic predisposition (HGPRT, multifactorial inheritance), heavy alcohol consumption, obesity, drugs (Thiazides), and lead toxicity (Saturnine Gout).
What are the initial symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?
Malaise, fatigue, and generalized pain.
What percentage of Ankylosing Spondylitis patients are HLA-B27 positive?
90%.
Which joints are typically affected in Reactive Arthritis?
Ankles, knees, and feet in an asymmetric pattern.
What leads to the remission of an acute gout attack?
The resolubilization of crystals after the episode of crystallization abates.
What is Gouty Nephropathy?
The presence of MSU or tophi in the renal medullary interstitium or tubules, leading to uric acid nephrolithiasis and pyelonephritis.
What is polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and its clinical course?
Occurs slightly earlier than monostotic fibrous dysplasia. Commonly affects femur, skull, tibia, humerus, ribs, fibula, radius, ulna, mandible, vertebra. Craniofacial involvement in 50% of those with moderate number of bones affected, 100% in extensive skeletal disease.
What are the main contributors to the development of rheumatoid arthritis?
Genetic and environmental factors.
What is the most common location for leiomyomas?
The uterus.
What are the common symptoms of sudden arthritis?
Swollen joint with restricted range of motion, fever, leukocytosis, and elevated ESR.
Which joints are typically affected first in rheumatoid arthritis?
Small joints, generally symmetrically.
What is the most common benign bone tumor?
Osteochondroma.
What percentage of Reactive Arthritis patients are HLA-B27 positive?
More than 80%.
What is the typical age of onset for Psoriatic Arthritis?
Between the 30s to 50s.
What increases the incidence of contiguous spread in neonates with Suppurative Arthritis?
Underlying epiphyseal osteomyelitis.
What gene mutation is associated with Fibrous Dysplasia?
Somatic gain-of-function mutation in the GNAS1 gene.
What genetic fusion gene indicates the clonal but self-limited proliferation of certain rapidly growing tumors?
MYH9-USP6 fusion gene (t(17;22)).
What are common symptoms of osteoarthritis?
Deep achy pain that worsens with use, morning stiffness, crepitus, and limitation of range of motion.
What mutations are commonly found in deep fibromatosis?
Mutations in APC or β-catenin.
What are the environmental factors related to osteoarthritis?
Aging and biomechanical stress. OA prevalence increases beyond age 50.
What are the diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?
Presence of 4 of the following: Morning stiffness, arthritis in 3 or more joints, arthritis of hand joints, symmetric arthritis, rheumatoid nodules, serum RF, and typical radiologic findings.
What is Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
A heterogeneous group of disorders of unknown cause that present with arthritis before age 16 and persist for at least 6 weeks.
Which subtype of chondrosarcoma is the most common?
Conventional chondrosarcoma.
What is Ewing sarcoma?
A malignant bone tumor characterized by primitive round cells without obvious differentiation.
What is Mazabraud Syndrome?
Characterized by skeletal features of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia with multiple deformities and intramuscular myxomas in adults. Although benign, it may cause local compression symptoms.
What are the radiographic appearances of metastatic bone tumors?
May appear as purely lytic, purely blastic, or mixed lesions. Prostatic adenocarcinoma is predominantly blastic, while kidney, lung, GIT, and melanoma typically present as lytic lesions.
What chromosomal translocation is associated with synovial sarcoma?
SS18-SSX1,2,4 gene translocation.
What are the characteristics of Mycobacterial Arthritis?
Chronic progressive monoarticular infection with insidious, gradual progressive pain and formation of granulomas with central casseous necrosis.
What is hyperuricemia and its significance in Gout?
Hyperuricemia is plasma levels above 6.8 mg/dl and is necessary but not sufficient for the development of gout.
What are the characteristic deformities associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
Radial elevation of the wrist, ulnar deviation of fingers, and flexion-hyperextension of fingers (Swan-Neck, Boutonniere deformity).
What are the common features of seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
Pathologic changes in ligamentous attachments, involvement of sacroiliac joints, absence of RF, and association with HLA-B27.
What do the EXT1 and EXT2 genes encode?
Enzymes that synthesize heparin sulfate.
What happens to osteochondromas at the time of growth plate closure?
They stop growing.
Where do chondrosarcomas commonly arise?
In the axial skeleton.
What percentage of primary malignant bone tumors does ESFT represent?
6% to 10%.
What indicates a greater degree of neuroectodermal differentiation in Ewing Sarcoma?
The presence of Homer-Wright Rosettes.
What is the pathognomonic hallmark of gout?
Tophi, which are large aggregations of urate crystals surrounded by an intense inflammatory reaction of foreign body giant cells.
What occurs to chondrocytes in osteoarthritis?
Chondrocytes eventually die and are sloughed off.
What is McCune Albright Syndrome?
Characterized by precocious sexual development, most often in girls, and includes endocrinopathies such as hyperthyroidism, pituitary adenoma (GH secreting), and primary adrenal hyperplasia. Often unilateral with ipsilateral skin pigmentation. Cutaneous macules are large, dark to café au lait color with irregular serpiginous borders on neck, chest, back, shoulder, and pelvic region.
What are the three types of rhabdomyosarcoma?
Alveolar, Embryonal, and Pleomorphic.
Which type of arthritis is more common in sexually active women?
Gonococcal arthritis.
What are the characteristics of chronic synovitis in Lyme Arthritis?
Marked by synoviocyte hyperplasia, fibrin deposition, mononuclear infiltrates, and onion skin thickening of arterial walls.
What marks Gout?
Transient attacks of acute arthritis initiated by crystallization of monosodium urate within and around the joints.
What are Baker cysts and where do they develop?
Baker cysts are herniations of the synovium that develop in the posterior knee due to increased intra-articular pressure.
When do multiple osteochondromas become apparent?
During childhood.
What is the morphology of osteochondromas?
Sessile or pedunculated, 1-20 cm, with a cap composed of benign hyaline cartilage of varying thickness.
What is the typical age of onset for Ankylosing Spondylitis?
2nd to 3rd decades of life.
What triggers Reactive Arthritis?
An autoimmune reaction initiated by a prior infection.
Which joints are predominantly affected in Psoriatic Arthritis?
The peripheral joints of the hands and feet, with the DIP joints first affected in an asymmetric distribution.
What is the common radiographic appearance of Ewing sarcoma?
Destructive lytic tumor with permeative margins that extends into the surrounding soft tissues.
What is the 5-year survival rate for Ewing Sarcoma with treatment?
75%, with a long-term cure rate of 50%.
What are the morphological characteristics of fibrous dysplasia?
Well circumscribed, intramedullary, vary in size. Larger lesions expand and distort the bone. Tan-white, gritty composed of curvilinear trabeculae of woven bone surrounded by moderately cellular fibroblastic proliferation. Mimics Chinese characters. Bone lacks prominent osteoblastic rimming. Nodules of hyaline cartilage of disorganized growth plate. Cystic degeneration, hemorrhage, foamy macrophages.
What characterizes deep fibromatosis?
Large, infiltrative masses that recur but do not metastasize.
What are the phases of osteoarthritis pathogenesis?
What is the main causative agent of arthritis in older children and adults?
S. aureus.
What are the types of Crystal-Induced Arthritis?
Endogenous (monosodium urate, calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate, basic calcium phosphate) and Exogenous (steroid ester crystals, talcum, biomaterials polyethylene, and methyl methacrylate).
What are the clinical manifestations of leukocytoclastic vasculitis?
Purpura, cutaneous ulcers, and nail bed infarction.
What percentage of osteochondromas are solitary?
85%.
What mediators are involved in the pathogenesis of JIA?
TH1 and TH17 cell mediators.
Which gender is more frequently affected by chondrosarcomas?
Men are affected twice as frequently as women.
What is the characteristic deformity seen in Psoriatic Arthritis?
Pencil in a cup deformity.
What is the typical age range for Giant Cell Tumor occurrence?
20s to 40s.
What is Pseudogout and what causes it?
Pseudogout, also known as chondrocalcinosis, is caused by CPPD deposition and occurs in older patients.
What is the typical size and appearance of superficial fibromatoses?
Less than 5 cm, circumscribed, slightly infiltrative.
Where are fibrosarcomas most commonly seen?
In the retroperitoneum, thigh, knees, and distal extremities.
What is a characteristic feature of leiomyosarcomas?
Eosinophilic spindle cells with blunt-ended hyperchromatic nuclei arranged in interweaving fascicles.
Which bacteria is prevalent in causing arthritis during late adolescence?
Gonococcus.
What diagnostic method is used for arthritis if it yields purulent fluids?
Joint aspiration.
What characterizes Acute Arthritis in Gout?
Dense neutrophilic infiltrates that permeate the synovium and monosodium urate crystals found in the cytoplasm of neutrophils.
What hereditary disease is associated with multiple osteochondromas?
Multiple hereditary exostosis syndrome.
At what age do chondrosarcomas usually occur?
In their 40s or older.
What is the Ewing Sarcoma Family Tumors (ESFT)?
A group that includes Ewing Sarcoma and Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumor (PNET).
What is Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor?
A tumor that develops in the lining of joints, tendon sheaths, and bursae, and can be diffuse or localized.
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
A chronic inflammatory disorder of autoimmune origin that principally attacks the joints.
Which variant of rhabdomyosarcoma has the best prognosis?
Sarcoma botyroides.
What deficiency is common in patients with gonococcal arthritis?
Complement (C5, C6, C7) deficiency.
What are the distinctive morphological changes in Gout?
Acute Arthritis, Chronic Tophaceous arthritis, Tophi in various sites, and Gouty nephropathy.
What are the risk factors for JIA?
HLA and PTPN22, similar to RA.
What are the characteristics of hereditary osteochondroma at the genetic level?
Associated with germline loss of function in EXT1 or EXT2 genes.
What is the imaging characteristic of chondrosarcomas?
Calcified matrix appears as foci of flocculent densities.
What genetic translocation is most commonly associated with Ewing sarcoma?
(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, fusing EWS and FLI1.
What is Nodular Fasciitis?
A self-limited fibroblastic and myofibroblastic proliferation that occurs in young adults, often with a history of trauma.
What are rheumatoid factors?
Serum IgM or IgA that bind to Fc portions of their own IgG, often depositing in the joints as immune complexes.
When are solitary osteochondromas typically diagnosed?
In late adolescence and early adulthood.
What is Ankylosing Spondylitis?
A condition characterized by the destruction of articular cartilage and bony ankylosis, especially in the sacroiliac and apophyseal joints.
What is the triad of symptoms in Reactive Arthritis (Reiter Syndrome)?
Arthritis, non-gonococcal urethritis or cervicitis, and conjunctivitis.
What is Psoriatic Arthritis?
A chronic inflammatory arthropathy associated with psoriasis that affects the peripheral and axial joints and entheses.
How do bacteria typically enter the joints in Suppurative Arthritis?
Via hematogenous spread from distant sites.
What are rheumatoid subcutaneous nodules?
Firm, non-tender, round-oval nodules arising from subcutaneous tissue, resembling necrotizing granulomas.
Which type of arthritis predominates in children under 2 years old?
H. influenza arthritis.
Which joint is most commonly involved in arthritis?
The knee.
What are the radiologic hallmarks of rheumatoid arthritis?
Joint effusion, juxta-articular osteopenia with erosions, narrowing of joint spaces, and loss of articular cartilage.
How does JIA differ from RA?
Oligoarthritis is more common, systemic disease is more frequent, large joints are more affected than small joints, rheumatoid nodules and factors are usually absent, and ANA is common.
Where do osteochondromas develop?
In bones of endochondral origin, arising from the metaphysis near the growth plate of long tubular bones.
What is the typical duration of Enteritis Associated Arthritis?
About a year, and it generally clears.
What is the primary goal of treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?
To relieve pain and inflammation and to slow or arrest joint destruction.
What is chondrosarcoma?
A malignant tumor that produces cartilage.
What is the clinical course of conventional chondrosarcomas?
Most are grade 1 with a 5-year survival rate of 80-90%, rarely metastasize.
What is the typical age group affected by Ewing sarcoma?
Younger than 20 years old.