What distinguishes Risk Group 4 pathogens?
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Causes serious human or animal disease that can be transmitted from one individual to another, directly or indirectly.
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What distinguishes Risk Group 4 pathogens?
Causes serious human or animal disease that can be transmitted from one individual to another, directly or indirectly.
What is the purpose of a positive acid-fast stain?
To identify acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium species.
What does QNS stand for in specimen testing?
Quantity Not Sufficient.
What is the purpose of a triple packaging system in transporting infectious samples?
To limit the risk of exposure and/or release during transportation by using redundant layers of packaging.
What is the primary purpose of pasteurization?
To eliminate organisms responsible for food spoilage.
What are examples of Category A agents?
Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium botulinum, Yersinia pestis, and Variola major (smallpox).
What temperature is recommended for preserving CSF samples intended for Gram staining?
35°C.
What should be maintained at 37°C if there is a delay in processing?
CSF (Cerebrospinal Fluid).
What biosafety level is preferred for handling BSL 4 agents?
Class III Biological Safety Cabinet.
What is a characteristic of Risk Group 1 microorganisms?
Unlikely to cause human or animal disease.
What type of swabs are NOT recommended for viral collection, including SARS-CoV-2 studies?
Calcium alginate swabs or swabs with wooden shafts.
What should be visibly seen on all equipment and instruments in a laboratory?
Biohazard symbol.
What indicates a potential anaerobic infection in tissue samples?
Necrotic tissue samples with black discoloration.
What is the process that destroys pathogenic organisms but not necessarily all microorganisms?
Disinfection.
What is the principle of incineration?
Burning materials into ashes at 300°C to 400°C.
What is the purpose of using AgNO3 in newborns?
It is used for the prophylaxis of ophthalmia neonatorum.
What is the purpose of the HEPA filter in a Class III Cabinet?
To sterilize the air coming in and going out of the cabinet.
What defines Biosafety Level 4 agents?
Cause life-threatening infections; aerosol transmission risk is very high.
What is the purpose of a Class II, Type B2 Biological Safety Cabinet?
To process chemicals, radioisotopes, and carcinogens, with exhaust air discharged completely outside.
What is the purpose of droplet precautions?
To prevent the spread of infections through respiratory droplets.
What characteristics should the primary receptacle for infectious substances have?
It should be watertight, leak-proof, and properly labeled.
What type of specimens should be prioritized for processing?
CSF, tissue, blood, and sterile fluids.
At what temperature should viral samples be stored?
Refrigerated at 4°C.
What is the acceptable range of epithelial cells in sputum samples for cultivation?
Less than 10 epithelial cells and more than 25 pus cells per microscopic field.
What temperature and time are required for boiling to destroy vegetative bacteria?
100°C for 10 to 15 minutes.
What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic agents?
Bactericidal agents kill all bacteria, while bacteriostatic agents inhibit the growth of organisms.
What are some examples of select agents that can be detected?
Brucella, Legionella, vancomycin-resistant S. aureus.
What are contact precautions designed to prevent?
The spread of infectious agents such as multidrug-resistant organisms.
What is sterilization?
A process that kills all forms of microbial life, including bacterial endospores.
What is the principle behind dry heat sterilization?
It kills microorganisms by denaturing proteins.
What is a disinfectant and give an example?
A substance usually applied to inanimate objects; an example is sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl) in a 1:10 dilution.
What is the method of choice for sterilizing heat-sensitive solutions?
Filtration.
What type of filters are used in air filtration for sterilization?
High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters.
What is the effect of desiccation on bacteria?
It disrupts metabolism by removing water, considered bacteriostatic.
What defines Biosafety Level 1 agents?
No known potential for infecting healthy people; used for educational training.
What defines Risk Group 2 microorganisms?
Can cause human or animal disease but is unlikely to be a serious hazard.
What types of agents can Class II Biological Safety Cabinets handle?
BSL-1, BSL-2, and provisions for BSL-3 organisms.
What is the significance of detecting antibiotic-resistant organisms?
To ensure proper infection control and treatment protocols.
What is the risk associated with Risk Group 3 pathogens?
Causes serious human or animal disease but does not ordinarily spread from one infected individual to another.
What is the maximum transport time for specimens after collection?
Two hours.
What is the ideal air-handling system for a clinical microbiology laboratory?
It should be under negative pressure, and the air should not be recirculated after passing through the laboratory.
What is the preferred anticoagulant for blood culture media?
Sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) in 0.025% to 0.050% concentration.
What is the temperature and time for Low-Temperature Holding (LTH) pasteurization?
63°C for 30 minutes.
What is an antiseptic?
A substance applied topically on the skin, such as hexachlorophene or tincture of iodine.
What is the risk associated with Category B agents?
Moderate morbidity and low mortality, requiring surveillance and diagnostic assistance.
What is the role of phenol in microbial control?
Phenol destroys plasma membranes and denatures cell proteins; 5% phenol is effective against mycobacteria.
Why are swabs not recommended for routine specimen collection?
Because they are easily contaminated and dried out.
What is the pressure condition inside a Class III Cabinet?
The interior is under negative pressure.
What are Category A infectious substances?
Biological agents capable of causing permanent disability or life-threatening disease in otherwise healthy humans or animals.
What are Category A agents in terms of bioterrorism?
Agents that pose the greatest public health threat, resulting in high mortality rates and potential public panic.
What is a common reason for specimen rejection?
The information on the label does not match the information on the requisition slip.
What is the biological indicator used for dry heat sterilization?
Bacillus atrophaeus.
What is Tyndallization?
A method that destroys vegetative cells and spores after three consecutive days of sterilization.
What is the main difference between biosafety and biosecurity?
Biosafety focuses on health safety, while biosecurity focuses on preventing theft or misuse of dangerous materials.
What is the purpose of triple packaging for infectious substances?
To limit the risk of exposure and/or release during transportation.
What is the function of viral transport media (VTM)?
To preserve samples for viral and bacterial isolation and maintain the viability of organisms.
What is the fastest and simplest method of sterilization?
Autoclaving.
What staining method is ideal for detecting mycobacteria?
Acid-fast staining.
What is the temperature and time for oven heating in dry heat sterilization?
160°C to 170°C for 1.5 to 2 hours.
What are the mechanisms by which chemical disinfectants destroy microorganisms?
What is the airflow configuration of Class II, Type A2 Biological Safety Cabinet?
70% recirculated and 30% exhausted.
What is a common fixative used for preserving specimens?
Formalin.
What are Category B infectious substances?
Materials containing biological agents capable of causing infection in humans or animals, but do not meet the criteria for Category A.
What is the purpose of direct microscopic examination of specimens?
To determine the quality of the specimen and provide early indications of illness.
What biological indicator is used for autoclaving?
Geobacillus stearothermophilus.
What are critical panic values in laboratory testing?
Positive blood cultures, positive spinal fluid Gram stain or culture, and others indicating severe conditions.
What does pasteurization eliminate?
Food-borne pathogens.
What is the most common chemical sterilant used?
Ethylene oxide.
What are the characteristics of Biosafety Level 2 agents?
Moderate potential hazard; can be acquired by ingestion or exposure.
What is the principle behind autoclaving?
Steam under pressure.
What characterizes Category C agents?
Emerging pathogens with potential for high morbidity and mortality rates.
What should be done with serum for serological studies?
It should be frozen at -20°C for up to one week.
What temperature and time are required for inspissation?
70°C to 80°C for two hours over three consecutive days.
What type of swabs should be used for specimen collection from the upper respiratory tract?
Dacron or calcium alginate swabs.
What is the biological indicator for radiation sterilization?
Bacillus pumilus.
What types of radiation are used in ionizing radiation sterilization?
Gamma rays and x-rays.
What level of safety does a Class III Cabinet provide?
The highest level of safety to the laboratory worker.
What type of gloves are used in a Class III Cabinet?
Rubber gloves that are attached and sealed onto the cabinet.
Give an example of a Biosafety Level 1 agent.
Bacillus subtilis or Escherichia coli.
Name an example of a Biosafety Level 2 agent.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) or Hepatitis B Virus (HBV).
Provide an example of a Biosafety Level 3 agent.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis or Francisella tularensis.
What is a key feature of Biosafety Level 3 agents?
Potential for aerosol transmission; requires controlled air movement.
What does biosafety focus on?
Keeping people, animals, and the environment safe from germs and diseases.
What type of air does a Class I Biological Safety Cabinet allow?
Unsterilized air, which can expose samples to contamination.
What is the primary use of a Class II Biological Safety Cabinet?
To provide protection for the worker, environment, and samples, sterilizing air with a HEPA filter.
Which Class II Biological Safety Cabinet is most commonly used in clinical and microbiology laboratories?
Class II, Type A2.
What is the airflow configuration of a Class III Biological Safety Cabinet?
0% recirculated and 100% exhausted.
What is the primary purpose of a Biological Safety Cabinet (BSC)?
To protect workers from aerosol exposure and infectious disease agents.
What is a key feature of a Class III Cabinet?
It has an airtight system that completely separates the worker from the sample.