What condition is characterized by enlargement of the craniofacial skeleton?
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Leontiasis ossea.
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What condition is characterized by enlargement of the craniofacial skeleton?
Leontiasis ossea.
Which gender is more frequently affected by osteochondromas?
Men, who are affected three times more often than women.
Which types of collagen mutations are mentioned as affecting bone structure?
Types II, IX, X, and XI collagen.
What characterizes osteopetrosis?
Reduced bone resorption and diffuse symmetric skeletal sclerosis due to impaired osteoclast function.
What is the sequence of events in the BMU?
Osteoclast attachment and resorption, osteoblast attachment and proliferation, matrix synthesis.
What are the primary functions of bones?
Mechanical support, transmission of forces, protection of viscera, mineral homeostasis, and niche for blood cell production.
What is the extracellular component of bone called?
Bone matrix.
What is dysostosis?
Localized problems of mesenchyme migration and condensation, often due to mutations in transcription factors.
What is sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre associated with?
Extensive new bone formation that obscures much of the underlying osseous structure.
Which demographic is more affected by age-related bone loss?
Whites more than blacks.
What is the bimodal age distribution of osteosarcoma?
75% occur in persons younger than 20 years old, and 25% occur in older adults with predisposing conditions.
Where do osteosarcomas usually arise?
In the metaphyseal region of long bones, particularly around the knee (distal femur, proximal tibia).
What genetic factor is associated with peak bone density variation?
Polymorphisms.
What nutritional deficiency is common in adolescent girls during rapid bone growth?
Insufficient calcium intake.
What hormonal change occurs postmenopausally that affects bone mass?
Estrogen deficiency leads to increased bone resorption.
What is the most common subtype of osteosarcoma?
Primary, intramedullary, osteoblastic, and high grade, arising in the metaphysis of long bones.
What hereditary condition is associated with multiple osteochondromas?
Multiple hereditary exostosis syndrome, an autosomal dominant hereditary disease.
What is osteoid primarily composed of?
Predominantly Type I collagen with small amounts of glycosaminoglycans and other proteins.
What is the best diagnostic method for osteoporosis?
Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry, quantitative CT, or biopsy.
What is the typical radiographic finding in osteomyelitis?
A lytic focus of bone destruction surrounded by a zone of sclerosis.
What is the clinical course for aggressive malignancies?
They are treated with neoadjuvant chemotherapy and surgical excision, with a 5-year survival of 75%.
What type of exercises are more effective for increasing bone mass?
Resistance exercises such as weight training.
Where do Giant Cell Tumors typically arise?
In the epiphysis, mostly around the knee (distal femur, proximal tibia).
What is the morphology of an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC)?
It has multiloculated blood-filled cystic spaces and is often eccentric and expansile.
What is the common age group affected by Primary Aneurysmal Bone Cysts?
Generally occurs during the first two decades of life.
What are Fibrous Cortical Defects?
Common metaphyseal fibrous defects found in 30-50% of children older than 2 years.
What is a common symptom localized to the affected bone?
Pain.
What genetic mutations are associated with enchondromas?
Heterozygous mutations in IDH1 and IDH2 genes.
What are the morphological characteristics associated with certain bone disorders?
Marked cortical thinning, attenuated trabeculae, improper modeling, and persistent foci of hypercellular woven bone.
How does reduced physical activity affect bone health?
It increases the rate of bone loss.
What type of arthritis can result from epiphyseal infections in infants?
Septic and suppurative arthritis.
What does infection in vertebrae destroy?
Hyaline cartilage and intervertebral discs.
What stimulates osteoclastic bone resorption after the first week of infection?
Chronic inflammatory cells.
What are the two types of conditions mentioned in the clinical course?
Monostonic (15%) and Polycystonic (85%).
What is the average annual bone loss in older adults?
0.7% per year.
What are common forms of dysostosis?
Aplasia (absence of bone), supernumerary digits (extra bones), syndactyly (abnormal fusion of bones).
What complication can arise from microfractures or bone overgrowth?
Compression of spinal and cranial nerve roots.
What imparts hardness to the bone matrix?
The inorganic moiety hydroxyapatite.
What is senile osteoporosis characterized by?
Attenuated cellular response to growth factors and low turnover variant.
What is the bone multicellular unit (BMU)?
A unit of coupled osteoblast and osteoclast activity on the surface.
How many bones are in the human body?
206 bones, making up 12% of body weight.
What regulates the BMU?
Cell-cell interactions and cytokines, including RANK, RANKL, and Osteoprotegerin (OPG).
What happens when RANK interacts with RANKL?
It activates the transcription factor NF-κB essential for generation of osteoclasts.
What is the hallmark of postmenopausal osteoporosis?
Normal bone histology that is decreased in quantity.
What is osteonecrosis?
Avascular necrosis that often stems from fractures or corticosteroid administration.
What syndromes are associated with Polyostotic Fibrous Dysplasia?
Mazabraud Syndrome and McCune Albright Syndrome.
What are chondromas?
Benign tumors of hyaline cartilage that arise within the medullary cavity or on the surface of the bone.
What is the treatment for osteomyelitis?
A combination of antibiotics and surgical drainage.
What is mycobacterial osteomyelitis often associated with?
Active visceral disease.
What is a frequent complication related to weight bearing?
Anterior bowing of femur and tibia, leading to secondary osteoarthritis.
What type of fractures are commonly associated with these conditions?
Chalk Stick-Type Fractures.
What happens to marrow in the mixed phase of Paget Disease?
It is replaced by connective tissue containing osteoprogenitor cells and blood vessels.
What is the most common type of chondrosarcoma?
Conventional chondrosarcoma, which is hyaline cartilage producing.
What imaging characteristic is associated with chondrosarcomas?
Calcified matrix appears as foci of flocculent densities.
What are the manifestations of Renal Osteodystrophy?
Osteopenia, Osteoporosis, Osteomalacia, Secondary hyperparathyroidism, Growth retardation.
What is the morphology of tumors that arise in the medullary cavity?
They invade the cortex, periosteum, and soft tissue, often with hemorrhage and necrosis.
When is peak bone mass achieved?
In early adulthood after cessation of skeletal growth.
What is the primary defect in osteopetrosis?
Interference with the acidification process of the osteoclast resorption pit.
What morphological features are associated with osteopetrosis?
Lack of medullary canal, bulbous ends of bones, and Erlenmeyer flask deformity.
What percentage of cases are asymptomatic and discovered incidentally?
Most cases are asymptomatic.
What is the difference between osteopenia and osteoporosis?
Osteopenia refers to decreased bone mass, while osteoporosis is severe osteopenia that significantly increases fracture risk.
What is the most common fracture associated with osteoporosis?
Vertebral fractures, particularly in the thoracic and lumbar regions.
What is the 5-year survival rate for patients without overt metastasis at initial diagnosis of osteosarcoma?
60% to 70%.
What are the two histologic forms of bone matrix?
Woven bone (rapidly produced, less structural integrity) and lamellar bone (slowly produced, better structural integrity).
What are osteoprogenitor cells?
Pluripotential mesenchymal cells on bone surfaces that differentiate into osteoblasts.
What is Thanatophoric Dysplasia?
The most common lethal form of dwarfism, characterized by microlemic shortening of limbs and respiratory insufficiency.
What is the clinical course of symptomatic osteochondromas?
They are cured by simple excision.
What type of tumors generally outnumber malignant tumors?
Benign tumors.
What is intramembranous ossification?
The development of flat bones directly from a fibrous layer of tissue without a cartilage mold.
What is Ewing Sarcoma?
A malignant bone tumor characterized by primitive round cells without obvious differentiation.
What type of hearing loss is associated with abnormalities in the bones of the middle and inner ear?
Sensorineural deficit.
What is osteopetrosis also known as?
Marble bone disease or Albers-Schönberg disease.
What is the pathogenesis of Giant Cell Tumors?
Neoplastic cells are primitive osteoblast precursors, and the tumor contains non-neoplastic osteoclasts.
What growth factors are released by cells during fracture healing?
PDGF, TGF-β, and FGF stimulate bone cells.
What is the soft tissue callus?
A fusiform, uncalcified tissue that provides an anchor between the ends of bones but lacks rigidity.
What are the two main components of the bone matrix?
Organic component (osteoid, 35%) and mineral component (65%).
What is the typical treatment approach for osteosarcoma?
A multimodality approach including neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgery.
At what age are solitary osteochondromas typically diagnosed?
Late adolescence and early adulthood.
What role do osteopontin and osteocalcin play in bone?
They are unique to bones and play a role in bone formation, mineralization, and calcium homeostasis.
What is Paget Disease also known as?
Osteitis Deformans.
What are the three phases of Paget Disease?
Initial osteolytic stage, mixed osteoclastic-osteoblastic stage, and burned out quiescent osteosclerotic stage.
What is a hallmark morphology of Paget Disease?
A mosaic pattern of lamellar bone.
What is Tuberculous Spondylitis also known as?
Pott disease.
What characterizes the initial lytic phase of Paget Disease?
Waves of osteoclastic activity and numerous resorption pits.
How do osteocytes communicate?
Through an intricate network of dendritic cytoplasmic processes via tunnels known as canaliculi.
What is Rickets?
A disorder in children that interferes with bone deposition in growth plates.
What role does PTH play in calcium homeostasis?
Activates osteoclasts, increasing bone resorption and serum calcium levels.
What dental imperfection is noted in the text?
Misshapen blue-yellow teeth.
Which gender is more commonly affected by osteosarcoma?
Men, with a ratio of 1.6:1.
What is the initial response to a fracture?
Rupture of blood vessels results in hematoma filling the fracture gap and surrounding the bone injury.
What role does clotted blood play in fracture healing?
It provides a fibrin mesh that seals the fracture site and creates a framework for inflammatory cells, fibroblasts, and new capillaries.
What are mucopolysaccharidoses?
A group of lysosomal storage diseases caused by deficiencies in enzymes that degrade certain sulfates.
What is the most common benign bone tumor?
Osteochondroma, with 85% being solitary.
What happens to the soft tissue callus after two weeks?
It transforms into a bony callus.
What are common symptoms of hematogenous osteomyelitis in infants?
Unexplained fever.
What are common predisposing factors for osteonecrosis?
Alcohol abuse, Gaucher disease, bisphosphonates, infection, and corticosteroids.
What causes Brachydactyly types D and E?
Mutations in the homeobox HOXD13 gene.
What is Cleidocranial Dysplasia?
A condition caused by loss of function mutations in the RUNX2 gene, leading to various skeletal abnormalities.
What is an osteochondroma?
A benign cartilage-capped tumor attached to the underlying skeleton by a bony stalk.
What is Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
A brittle bone disease caused by deficiencies in the synthesis of type I collagen, leading to extreme skeletal fragility.
What are chondrosarcomas?
Malignant tumors that produce cartilage.
What is the size difference between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?
Osteoid osteoma is less than 2 cm, while osteoblastoma is larger than 2 cm.
What hormones control bone development?
Growth Hormone, Thyroid Hormone, Indian Hedgehog, Parathyroid hormone-related protein, Wnt, SOX9, RUNX2, and Fibroblast growth factors.
What indicates a greater degree of neuroectodermal differentiation in tumors?
The presence of Home-Wright Rosettes.
What characterizes a Giant Cell Tumor (Osteoclastoma)?
It is dominated by multinucleated osteoclast-type giant cells and is locally aggressive.
What is a common initial symptom of osteosarcoma?
Sudden fracture of the bone.
What radiological feature is indicative of an aggressive osteosarcoma?
Codman triangle, which results from the tumor breaking in the cortex and lifting the periosteum.
What percentage of osteosarcoma cases have acquired genetic abnormalities?
70%.
What is a Brodie abscess?
A small intraosseous abscess that involves the cortex and is walled off by reactive bone.
Which areas of the body are primarily involved in these conditions?
Axial skeleton or proximal femur (80%).
What is the pathogenesis of Fibrous Dysplasia?
It involves a somatic gain-of-function mutation in the GNAS1 gene.
What is the difference between dysostosis and dysplasia?
Dysostosis involves localized issues, while dysplasia involves global disorganization.
When do multiple osteochondromas usually become apparent?
During childhood.
What is a sequestrum in osteomyelitis?
Dead bone.
How does osteomyelitis typically spread?
Through hematogenous spread, extension from contiguous sites, or direct implantation.
What do osteoblasts do?
They are bone-forming cells that synthesize, transport, assemble matrix, and regulate mineralization.
What happens during acute infection in osteomyelitis?
Bacteria proliferate, inducing neutrophilic inflammation and spreading via the Haversian system.
What is a characteristic feature of osteoid osteoma?
Severe nocturnal pain due to PGE2 produced by proliferating osteoblasts.
What is a hallmark of severe hyperparathyroidism?
Generalized osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease of bone).
What is the most common cause of pyogenic osteomyelitis?
Bacterial infection, primarily Staphylococcus aureus.
What causes the increased activity of NF-κB in Paget Disease?
Interplay of environmental factors and genetics.
What happens to osteoblasts after 3 months?
They become inactive and may remain on the surface or become embedded as osteocytes.
What is Osteomalacia?
The adult counterpart of Rickets, where bone formed during remodeling is unmineralized.
What is the prognosis for grade 1 conventional chondrosarcoma?
5-year survival of 80-90%, rarely metastasizes.
What genetic translocation is commonly associated with Ewing Sarcoma?
(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, fusing EWS and FLI1.
What type of fractures are classified as simple?
Fractures where the overlying skin is intact.
Where do osteochondromas develop in the body?
In bones of endochondral origin, near the growth plate of long tubular bones.
What is the typical morphology of enchondromas?
Smaller than 3 cm, gray-blue translucent, composed of well-circumscribed nodules of hyaline cartilage.
What is the typical location of infection in neonates?
Metaphysis or epiphysis due to metaphyseal vessels penetrating the growth plate.
What is a key diagnostic feature of these bone conditions?
Enlarged, thick, coarsened cortices and cancellous bone.
What is the fundamental defect in Rickets and Osteomalacia?
Impairment of mineralization and accumulation of unmineralized matrix.
What are the three interrelated skeletal abnormalities in hyperparathyroidism?
Osteoporosis, Brown Tumors, Osteitis Fibrosa cystica.
What happens to bone resorption in the fourth decade of life?
Bone resorption predominates.
What is a pathologic fracture?
A fracture occurring in bone weakened by underlying disease or tumor.
What skeletal change occurs due to weakened bone in the skull?
Invagination of the skull base (platybasia).
What is the pathogenesis associated with hereditary osteochondroma?
Germline loss of function in EXT1 or EXT2 genes, affecting heparin sulfate synthesis.
What is the morphology of osteochondromas?
Sessile or pedunculated, 1-20 cm, with a cap of benign hyaline cartilage.
What is the syphilitic saber shin?
Massive reactive periosteal bone deposition on the medial and anterior surface of the tibia.
What is the function of osteoclasts?
They are responsible for bone resorption.
What is endochondral ossification?
The process by which most bones develop from a cartilage mold.
What percentage of the skeleton is replaced annually?
Approximately 10%.
What is the common age range for Ewing Sarcoma patients?
Younger than 20 years old.
What is Achondroplasia?
The most common skeletal dysplasia and a major cause of dwarfism, caused by a gain-of-function mutation in FGFR3.
What is a characteristic feature of skeletal syphilis?
Bone lesions appear around the 5th month of gestation.
What is the fundamental abnormality in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Too little bone resulting in extreme skeletal fragility.
What are osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma classified as?
Benign bone-producing tumors.
What age group is most commonly affected by chondrosarcomas?
Usually in their 40s or older, with some variants affecting younger patients.
What is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone?
Osteosarcoma.